2023年四川省自贡市中考英语真题
展开四川省自贡市初2023届毕业生学业考试
英 语
第I卷(选择题 共100分)
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,可将答案划在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What may the girl buy for Betty?
A. B. C.
2. Where did the boy go last weekend?
A. B. C.
3. Which is Mary’s favorite teacher?
A. B. C.
4. What will Bob do this summer holiday?
A. B. C.
5. How does the boy improve his English?
A. B. C.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有一个或几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟。听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段材料,回答第6小题。
6. What does the man do to relax himself now?
A. Watch TV. B. Eat snacks. C. Play sports.
听下面一段材料,回答第7小题。
7. How much will the shirt cost this Sunday?
A. 10 dollars. B. 30 dollars. C. 40 dollars.
听下面一段材料,回答第8小题。
8. Who is probably using the dictionary now?
A. Lisa. B. Jason. C. Frank.
听下面一段材料,回答第9小题。
9. Why was Sally late for the morning reading?
A. She got up late. B. She saw the doctor. C. She missed the school bus.
听下面一段材料,回答第10小题。
10. Where did Peter get the art piece?
A On the Internet. B. In a gift shop. C. From his cousin.
听下面一段材料,回答第11至12题。
11. What does Dale think of the movie?
A. Interesting. B. Exciting. C. Wonderful.
12. When will the movie start?
A. At 7:00. B. At 6:30. C. At 6:00.
听下面一段材料,回答第13至15题。
13. What is the relationship between the two speakers?
A. Tourist and guide. B. Teacher and student. C. Waiter and customer.
14. How long has the man stayed in Zigong?
A. For two days. B. For three days. C. For four days.
15. Which place does the man like best?
A. The Lantern Park. B. The Fun Times Park. C. The Salt History Museum.
听下面一段独白,回答第16至20题。
16. What does Paul want to be?
A. A car engineer. B. A home doctor. C. A computer programmer.
17. Where will Paul work?
A. In Chengdu. B. In Shanghai. C. In Beijing.
18. What subject is Paul strong in at school?
A. Chinese. B. English. C. Science.
19. What will happen to teenagers in 2040?
A. They can go to college for free.
B. They can go to college without exams.
C. They can go to college by taking online courses.
20. What will the cities be like in 2040?
A. There will be more parks.
B. There will be more bus drivers.
C. There will be more hospitals for the old.
第二部分 基础知识运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节 单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
1. — What’s your favorite ______?
— Apples. An apple a day keeps the doctor away.
A. fruit B. drink C. job
2. — What’s your plan for the coming Dragon Boat Festival?
— Most of us ______ ready to make zongzi.
A. is B. are C. have
3. — Would you like to eat some fried chicken?
— No, thanks. I think it ________ delicious but is unhealthy.
A. sounds B. feels C. tastes
4. —______ do you help at the old people’s home?
—Once a week. We should care about the old more.
A. How long B. How often C. How soon
5. —Why didn’t you pick up my phone at seven o’clock last night?
—I ________ the dishes in the kitchen at that time so I didn’t hear it.
A was doing B. did C. had done
6. —Ms. White, I am sad that I didn’t pass the test.
—Keep trying. Success ________ hard work.
A. depends on B. gives away C. leads to
7. — Could I _______ the book for two more days?
— Sorry, you can’t. You must follow our rules.
A. borrow B. lend C. keep
8. —Mike, we are told not ________ the phone while crossing the street.
—I am sorry. I won’t do it again.
A. answering B. to answer C. answer
9. —I want to know ________ you got to Zigong yesterday.
—By high-speed train.
A. where B. how C. when
10. — I’m sorry to trouble you, Mr. Smith.
— ______.
A. I hope not B. Don’t say that C. That’s all right
第二节 完形填空(共15小题;A篇每小题2分,B篇每小题1分,满分20分)
阅读下面A、B两篇短文,掌握其大意,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中,选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
A
Every year on May 20th, it’s World Bee Day. It’s a day to thank bees. ____11____ bees, we wouldn’t have any food! When bees fly from plant to plant, they ____12____ pollen (花粉). The pollen makes new plants grow.
It’s also a day to learn more about their ____13____. Losing natural homes, getting sick and higher temperatures are making the number of bees drop. ____14____, people are now making a plan to save bees. It makes robot bees to help ____15____ and look after the queen bee. This will get the queen bee to lay more eggs and make more bees.
11. A. Without B. About C. For
12. A. help B. carry C. make
13. A. habits B. interests C. problems
14. A. Luckily B. Probably C. Secretly
15. A. wash B. feed C. use
B
If you see a group of kids riding bikes on a city street, and there’s one adult with them, also on a bike, this is a bike bus.
It’s not a real bus, but one group of ____16____ together does what the bus does. Take the following bike bus as an example.
Devin Olson is a dad in the US. He organizes a bike bus for local schools. It drops off students at 2 primary schools. “We ____17____ at 8 a.m. to play soccer and eat breakfast,” Olson says. Then we check our ____18____ and start our ride. It’s nothing but laughing.”
The group makes about 8 stops along the way to ____19____ children. “We want kids to enjoy going to school. They can ride with their parents, brothers or sisters. And they can ____20____ with students in different grades,” says Olson.
Recently, pictures and videos of bike buses got lots of attention ____21____ they were posted online. “What a simple idea it is! How ____22____ it is to get started,” says one Weibo user.
Now, many parents agree with the idea. And more ____23____ are giving up cars for a ride. This helps fight climate change, ____24____ exercise and reduce school drop-off traffic. And it also makes the children ____25____ than before.
16. A. walkers B. riders C. drivers
17. A. stop B. sleep C. meet
18. A. bikes B. bags C. boxes
19. A. look after B. cheer up C. pick up
20. A. stand B. agree C. talk
21. A. when B. before C. until
22. A. easy B. boring C. strange
23. A. schools B. families C. communities
24. A. believe B. understand C. encourage
25. A. smarter B. happier C. shyer
第三部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。
A
Farming Experience Camp
Are you looking for an exciting and meaningful summer camp? Come to our farming experience camp!
Schedule
| July 3rd | July 4th | July5th | July 6th |
9:00-10:30 | Opening Ceremony | About Vegetables | About Animals | About Fruits |
10:30-11:00 | Break and Snack | |||
11:00-12:00 | Team Preparation | Science | Role Play: Let’s be little farmers. | Art and Creativity |
12:00-14:00 | Lunch and Break | |||
14:00-15:30 | Team Building Activities | Planting Vegetables | Looking after Animals | Picking Fruits |
Camp information:
Language English
Age 13-15 years old
Fee ¥400/ person (more than two persons: ¥300/person)
Email summercamp@163.com
26. What can kids do in the summer camp?
A. Pick fruits. B. Make cakes. C. Milk cows.
27. How much will it cost if three kids go to the summer camp?
A. ¥600. B. ¥900. C. ¥1,200.
28. What is the purpose of the text?
A. To educate kids to protect the animals.
B. To help farmers to sell vegetables and fruits.
C. To call on more students to join in the summer camp.
B
There was a rich man who had many banana trees in a village. After a good harvest (丰收), he decided to give some bananas to the nearest temple as an offering to God. He asked one servant to take the bananas to the temple.
The servant got very hungry and ate two bananas on the way. When he reached the temple, he gave the remaining bananas to the temple. That night, the rich man had a strange dream. In his dream, God visited him and said, “The two bananas you gave me were very good.” The rich man woke up suddenly and was surprised by his dream.
The next morning, he asked the servant whether all the bananas had reached the temple or not. The servant told him he had eaten two bananas. The rich man was disappointed but wasn’t angry. Instead, he realized that helping the poor was the only way to reach God.
From that day on, the rich man started helping people in need in the village. He gave away food, clothes and money to the poor, and he even built a school for the children. His kind actions inspired others to do the same. Great changes took place in the whole village soon. Everyone was happy, and there was no more poverty. They learned that the true path (道路) to happiness was through kindness.
29. Why was the rich man surprised by his dream?
A. God visited the servant.
B. God got only two bananas.
C. God liked the bananas very much.
30. What can we say about the rich man?
A. He planted banana trees for God.
B. He asked others to help the villagers.
C. He offered the children a place to get educated.
31. What is the right order according to the story?
a. The rich man had a dream.
b. The servant ate two bananas.
c. The rich man knew the only way to reach God.
d. The servant was asked to send bananas to the temple.
A. d-c-a-b B. d-b-a-c C. b-c-d-a
32. What can we learn from the change of the village?
A. Asking the rich for help is useful.
B. Being kind to others makes us happy.
C. Giving more bananas to God is helpful.
C
The character, Hua Mulan, introduces Chinese culture to the world in Disney’s 1998 cartoon movie and its new live-action (真人拍摄的) movie. She becomes a world star.
In the movies, Mulan dresses herself like a boy and takes her father’s place to fight in the army. She wins the respect of the whole nation and turns into a great soldier.
According to Alex Xin, an art researcher at Peking University, Mulan in the western world has changed over the past twenty years, from a heroine in westerners’ eyes to an authentic (地道的) Chinese girl. “When you check the 1998 cartoon, Mulan was described as a fighter for women’s rights, but it missed the point, as the original (最初的) story was mainly about traditional family value. I’m glad that the new film has included this important point, showing that after twenty years. Westerners now have a better understanding of Chinese culture,” Alex Xin said.
As one of the oldest countries in the world, China has a long history and wonderful culture. Chinese culture is deep and difficult to understand for foreigners. But by introducing traditional Chinese culture in popular styles such as film, it is much easier for foreigners to understand China.
33. When was the new live-action film made?
A. In 2018. B. In 2008. C. In 1998.
34. What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 3 refer to?
A. Mulan. B. The 1998 cartoon. C. The western world.
35. What can we learn from Alex’s words?
A. Westerners think it’s difficult to understand Chinese culture.
B. The 1998 cartoon was mainly about the traditional family value.
C. Westerners can understand Chinese culture better through the new film.
36. What is the best title for the text?
A. Mulan, a World Star B. Mulan, a Lovely Girl C. Mulan, a Brave Fighter
D
Many of us have learned that chatting with a friend, relative or classmate can improve our mood (心情). And failing to communicate with others can also affect the health of our minds and bodies.
Now experts in the US have found that a good conversation just once a day could be enough to boost people’s happiness and lower their stress levels.
The researchers looked at five types of conversation that past research has found to make people feel closer. These included things like sharing jokes, listening to others’ opinions, discussing recent experiences, offering real praise and showing care for others. The researchers asked over 900 people at five US universities to have one of these five types of conversation each day. Then these people reported how their chats affected their stress, well-being and other feelings that day.
The researchers also looked at how the number of daily chats affected the people’s well-being. And they found that while one good chat was enough to improve someone’s mood, those who chose to have more of these conversations had better days. “This means the more that you listened to your friends, the more that you showed care, the more that you took time to value others’ opinions, the better you felt at the end of the day,” one of the researchers said.
The researchers also said that meeting for a chat was better for people’s well-being than using a phone or social mediums (媒介).
37. What does the underlined word “boost” in Paragraph 2mean?
A. Increase. B. Discover. C. Create.
38. How can we lower our stress according to Paragraph 3?
A. By surfing the Internet.
B. By pointing out others’ mistakes.
C. By talking about our school trip yesterday.
39. What can we infer (推断) from the researcher’s words in Paragraph 4?
A. Exchanging ideas with others is useful.
B Different conversations have different influences.
C. The number of daily chats can influence our mood.
40. What is the text mainly about?
A Good chats improve our mood.
B. The change of mood is very important.
C. Five types of conversation affect our mood.
第二节 阅读填空(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为多余选项。
If you’re an outdoor-loving kid, you should follow some nature manners:
No littering
Juice is nice when you get tired on a beach. ____41____. They are bad for the environment. Take a small bag with you on your next trip. Put all of your litter in it.
Say no to graffiti (涂鸦)
As art, graffiti looks nice. But graffiti is not a good way to have fun in nature. ____42____. Nature is for all of us to enjoy. Don’t do anything to destroy it.
Just look with your eyes
____43____. But nature out there is their home. So do not touch them. And don’t give food to them. It may not be good for them.
____44____
Camping is a good way to have fun in nature. Many make a fire when they camp. If you’re in a forest, don’t make a fire. Fires can destroy forests.
Be a nice person
You’re not the only one in nature, so please be nice to other visitors. If you listen to music, use earphones. ____45____.
A. No fire in forests
B. We should protect others
C. So do not draw on trees or rocks
D. But juice boxes do not look nice there
E. It is nice to see animal friends in nature
F. If your pet is also there, don’t let him trouble others
第II卷(非选择题 共50分)
注意事项:必须使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡上题目所指示区域内作答,答在试题卷上无效。
第四部分 综合知识运用(共三节,满分50分)
第一节 单词填空(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
根据句意及首字母提示写出所缺单词的适当形式,并把单词完整地填写在答题卡上。
46. B______ is the color of the sky or the sea on a fine day.
47. I have to get up e______ in the morning to catch the bus, or I will be late for school.
48. It’s a tradition to admire the full m______ on Mid-Autumn Day.
49. Tom would like to c______ a meal for his mother on her birthday.
50. The government has taken action to reduce water p______. So Fuxi River becomes cleaner.
51. Students are not a______ to eat in class. We should follow the school rules.
52. Let’s help the little kid f______ up the broken wheels of the bike.
53. As long as we work together and never give up, we can o______ all the difficulties.
54. There are four s______ in one year. They are spring, summer, autumn and winter.
55. Chinese g______ each other by shaking hands while Japanese bow.
第二节 语法填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
China is the birthplace of tea. Since ancient times, Chinese people have been planting, picking, making and drinking tea. Chinese tea makers have developed 6 main kinds ____56____ tea—green, yellow, dark, white, oolong and black teas. There are more than 2,000 tea ____57____ (product) in China.
Tea was originally used as herbal (香草的) medicine ____58____ (call) “tu”. During the treating process, people gradually found that tea could not only cure illness ____59____ also help to clear heat away, so tea became ____60____ necessary drink. Nowadays, tea is one of the world’s three major drinks. It ____61____ (enjoy) by people all over the world. Tea can be found everywhere, such as in family activities, workplaces, teahouses and restaurants. It is also an important ____62____ (communicate) medium for making friends, weddings and other activities. So far, Chinese tea culture ____63____ (become) an important part of Chinese culture.
On November 29th, 2022, China’s traditional tea-making was ____64____ (successful) added to the intangible cultural heritage list (非物质文化遗产名录) of the UNESCO. China now has the ____65____ (many) items (项目) on the list. The move will help protect and hand down Chinese tea culture. It also helps foreign people have a better understanding of Chinese tea, as well as Chinese culture.
第三节 书面表达(满分25分)
66. 你校正在组织英文作文比赛。请以“我喜欢的运动”为主题,写一篇短文参赛。内容包括:
1.运动项目;
2.运动的好处;
3.运动安全。
注意:
1.词数80左右;
2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯
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