2023年江苏省连云港市灌南县中考二模英语试题（含答案）

2023年中考适应性考试

英语试题

注意：1.本试题共 8 页，七大题，共71个小题，满分 120 分，时间100 分钟。

2.请在答题卡上规定区域内作答，在其他位置作答一律无效。

一、单项选择（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出最佳选项。

1. Welcome to Lianyungang, ______ lively city with many places of interest.

A. a B. an  C. the  D. /

2. Learn-from-Lei Feng activities is held ______ March 5 every year.

A. in B. at C. on  D. from

3. Miss Li is ______ enough to correct our pronunciation again and again.

A. curious  B. patient C. humorous  D. lucky

4. It's a good ______ to wear white when you feel stressed.

A. present  B. condition  C. choice D. excuse

5. Chinese women's football team worked ______ and won the Asian Cup.

A. closely  B. simply C. hardly  D. widely

6. The film The Captain ______ a big success and it wins high praise from all over the world.

A. puts out  B. turns out  C. breaks out  D. hands out

7. Father's Day is coming. Some students buy flowers as gifts, ______ I plan to cook father a big dinner.

A. when  B. while  C. before  D. after

8.—Mum, I will work harder from now on.

—Well. ______.

A. Every dog has its day   B. Practice makes perfect

C. Many hands make light work  D. Action speaks louder than words

9. Can you tell me ______, Mike?

—On April 26.

A. when the 12th Expo 2023 of Jiangsu was held

B. where was the 12th Expo 2023 of Jiangsu held

C. how we can get to the 12h Expo 2023 of Jiangsu

D. what can we do for the 12t Expo 2023 of Jiangsu

10.—Let's go swimming on Sunday, Lily.

—______.

A. That's all right  B. My pleasure  C. You're welcome  D. Sounds great

二、完形填空（共15 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 15分）

阅读下面的短文，掌握其大意，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。

Jiang Mengnan was healthy when she was born. Unluckily, things changed when she was only six months old. She lost her    11    after she was given the wrong medicine. Mengnan's parents got really sad. They went to doctors for help, but the doctors    12    that Mengnan would probably never be able to hear again for the rest of her life.

“I didn't want her to live her life like that.” Mengnan's dad said. “We couldn't    13    on her.”

The family started trying    14    they could to help Mengnan: acupuncture (针灸), Chinese herbal medicine, and even qigong. Finally,    15    her parents' help, Mengnan started learning to read lips (嘴唇) and pronounce words. She sat    16    in front of a mirror with her parents every day, watched their mouths move,    17    how their throats vibrated (震动) when they spoke, and then tried to say the same    18    as they did.

“   19    I could say a word right with 10,000 practices.” She told CCTV, “my parents would be happy.”

It was no    20    task for Mengnan, but she kept practising day after day. Finally, she    21    to “hear” everything said to her. She went to school and learned by reading the teachers' lips. She set the alarm clock on her mobile phone, put    22    on “Vibrate”, and held it in her sleep so that it would wake her up at the right time for

   23    the next day. And, to people's surprise, she was always one of the    24    students in her class.

Now, Mengnan's life is on the right track. She is a student of Tsinghua University. She says she has always known that she is no    25    than anybody else. But she lives her life the way most of us can only dream about.

11. A. legs B. hearing C. hands D. smell

12. A. promised B. followed C. worked D. agreed

13. A. care for B. look around C. give up D. put out

14. A. everything B. anything C. something D. nothing

15. A. in B. from C. with D. over

16. A. highly B. luckily C. clearly D. quietly

17. A. felt B. listened C. gave D. offered

18. A. books B. words C. names D. passages

19. A. Unless B. Until C. Though D. If

20. A. hard B. active C. easy D. awful

21. A. planned B. managed C. decided D. preferred

22. A. it B. them C. her D. him

23. A. lunch B. sleep C. class D. meeting

24. A. busy B. clever C. beautiful D. top

25. A. different B. excellent C. careful D. excited

三、阅读理解（共两节；20小题：每小题2分，满分40分）

第一节：阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

26. When will an hourly show of videos be presented?

A. 14-24 July. B. 14-22 July. C. 15-23 July. D. 22-24 July.

27. If Tom, 12 years old, goes to the concert with his parents, how much will they pay?

A. $ 50. B. $ 80. C. $ 130. D. $ 210.

28. What does the passage probably come from?

A. A novel. B. A diary. C. A poster. D. A report.

B

How do you go to school every day? By bike or on foot? Maybe you can try a new way-taking a S'Cool Bus.

The S'Cool Bus is also called the bike bus. It was invented in the bike kingdom-the Netherlands. It is all about green lifestyle, sport and sharing. It's interesting for kids to ride the bus together to go to school.

Also, it is very safe. The bike bus has a driver and eleven seats for kids. Each one has a helmet and safety belt (安全带), There is also a roof on the bus. It can be used on hot days or rainy days to make kids feel comfortable.

Riding the bike bus is one of the greatest ways for children to get to school. Peter, a 10-year-old pupil, becomes a big fan of the bike bus. “Now the S'Cool Bus is my favorite way of transport. I can ride it together with other kids to keep healthy. It's full of fun.” For most parents, it can help them save a lot of time because they only have to pick up their children after school.

The S'Cool Bus is becoming more and more popular in some countries like Germany and France. Its creator Thomas Tolkamp says, “I hope I can sell the bike bus to more countries in the future. As green lifestyle becomes popular, ideas like this get popular, too. I think it will work well in other countries.” The use of S' Cool Bus shows us that we can save the Earth in many ways as long as we want to have a try.

29. The second paragraph mainly talks about ____________.

A. who invented the S'Coll Bus  B. what the S'Coll Bus is

C. where people ride the S'Coll Bus D. how kids ride the S'Coll Bus

30. What can we know from Peter's words?

A. He likes riding the bus bike alone. B. Other kids prefer to take the bus to school.

C. He gets lots of joy from riding the bus bike. D. Riding the bike bus is the best way to keep fit.

31. Why does Thoas Tolkamp create the bike bus?

A. To help people save money.  B. To tell people to enjoy their life.

C. To ask people to buy the bike bus. D. To encourage people to protect our earth.

32. What's the best title for this passage?

A. A wonderful way to school.  B. A good way to have a trip.

C. A new choice for transporting. D. A modern invention for visitors.

C

The children went to the station. They gave the letter to the station master. Then, they went to the porter's room to talk to him. The porter's name was Perks. He was friendly and told him about all the different kinds of engines.

The next day was Roberta's birthday. Mother told her to go away and stay away until teatime.

She felt very lonely in the garden, so she walked out of it and down the lane to the canal. There were barges on the canal, and people not only worked on the barges, they lived on them. The barges were their home, and the people were called barges. Sadly, they were not very friendly to children.

While Roberta was standing on the bridge looking down at the barges as they passed beneath it, the doctor came up in his small horse and cart.

“Hello, head nurse,” he said, “Do you want a ride home?”

Roberta got into the cart and sat next to the doctor.

As they rode along, she was very quiet. The doctor said, “What's the matter, head nurse? Isn't your mother better?”

“Oh, yes, she's getting better,” Roberta said. “But I think she's worried about your bill.” I heard her talking in her sleep. She was saying, ‘How can I pay the doctor?’ again and again.”

The doctor did not say anything for several minutes. He was not a rich man and he needed the patients to pay him.

Roberta said, “Are you angry with me?”

“No, no,” the doctor said. “I'm not angry. I'll see what I can do about my bill.”

Roberta let the doctor go on to his house and stayed in the garden until teatime.

When she went inside, there were twelve candles on the table, flowers and some little parcels. As she walked into the room, Mother, Phyllis and Peter sang a song to her.

Mother wrote the words for a birthday song every year.

33. What does the underlined word “it” refer to?

A. The garden. B. The home. C. The station. D. The canal.

34. The correct order of the following events is ____________.

①Peter sang a song to Roberta.

②Children gave the letter to the station master.

③The doctor came up in his small horse and cart.

④Mother told Roberta to stay away until teatime.

A.③②①④ B.②①③④ C.②④③① D.③①④②

35. From the passage, we can infer that ____________.

A. the doctor was rude to the children. B. people on the barge lived a rich life.

C. the porter gave Roberta a ride home. D. mother gave Roberta a birthday surprise.

36. What may the writer probably mention next?

A. Peter's hard life. B. Mother's health. C. Words for the birthday song. D. The doctor's home.

D

Let's be honest with ourselves-most of us probably have a few bad habits, and they might be anything from eating unhealthy to checking the phone repeatedly to not getting enough sleep. Bad habits offer us a sense of comfort, making them hard to break. But we also have the ability to break them and create good habits that will improve our lives.

Experts believe the first step towards breaking a bad habit is admitting you have a bad habit. Along with admitting you have it, try to find out why you got into the bad habit. Then, replace (取代) your bad habit with a good one. For example, if you overeat when you get bored, try exercising instead. And the rest is keeping trying. If you don't succeed at first, try again. Many experts believe it can take three weeks to form a new, good habit. Habits can be hard to break because you've had them for a long time, and it takes time and patience for you to change.

Breaking a bad habit is challenging, so take small steps and be kind to yourself. Keep the end goal in mind, but realize that a long journey is made up of many small steps. Reward yourself as you successfully take those small steps. Reaching the end goal will be its own reward, so give yourself some encouragement along the way.

Sometimes, you may need support from others. Family and friends can help you break bad habits. When you're having a hard time, they can be there to back you up and provide the courage you need to follow through.

Believe it or not, all bad habits can be broken with some work. Ready to take on the challenge?

37. The underlined word “admitting” in Paragraph 2 probably means ____________.

A. talking  B. knowing  C. avoiding D. thinking

38. What can we do after we find out the cause of a bad habit?

A. Eating lots of food.  B. Try to exercise more.

C. Replace it with a good habit.  D. Realize it is bad for us.

39. How can we do when sometimes we're having a hard time to break bad habits?

A. By rewarding ourselves.

B. By encouraging ourselves.

C. By asking others for help.

D. By travelling with friends.

40. Which of the following shows the structure of the passage?

A.  B.

C.  D.

第二节：阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的选项中选出能填够入短文空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺连贯，其中有两项是多余选项。

Most people choose to have dogs, cats, fishes or small birds in their homes.      41    

The 63-year-old man has a swan. It is a large and long lived bird.      42      Mirzan saved the swan from a dangerous situation many years ago. Mirzan and a group of friends were driving in their car when they saw a swan with a broken wing on the road. He was afraid that some hunters might catch her.      43      He kept the swan in the car until that afternoon when he was able to take her to his home.

“Since I love animals, I said to myself that I should take her home instead of leaving her,” Mirzan said.

     44      It means strange in Turkish language but is also used to describe a person who has difficulties in his life. After Garip's broken wing got better, she stayed with Mirzan. Mirzan lives alone and the swan is like a best friend to him.      45      And she never tries to run away from Mirzan's farm. Instead, Garip follows Mirzan wherever he goes. According to the group Swan Sanctuary in Britain, swans live in the wild for only about 12 years. But in protected environments, they can live up to 30 years.

四、词汇（共10小题：每小题1分，满分10分）

A.根据句意和汉语提示写出相应的单词，注意单词的适当形式。

46. We __________ (邀请) John to climb Hua Guo Mountain 1ast week.

47. Keeping __________ (日记) is a good way to improve our writing skills.

48. Use your time __________ (明智地), and you can do things better.

49. Mount Qomolangma is a __________ (自然的) wonder of the world.

50. After __________ (讨论)many times, Gang Yiyi and Gang Yuanyuan were chosen as mascots for the 12th Expo 2023 of Jiangsu.

B.根据短文意思和所给首字母，写出完整正确的单词。

Lanterns have been part of Chinese culture for centuries. There are mainly three (51) k________ of lanterns.

Palace lanterns were mainly used in palaces in ancient times. When making palace lanterns, fine wood is used. They are (52) c________ with silk or glass. These lanterns are not only used as lights but also as things that decorate palaces. Red lanterns are symbols of happiness and good wishes in Chinese culture. So red lanterns are always hung on (53) i________ festivals such as Lantern Festival, Spring Festival. The shadow-picture lanterns (54) l________ like the palace lanterns. There are two layers (层) of covers. Pictures are drawn on the inside layer and appear on the (55) o________ cover when they are moving.

Nowadays, more modern technology is used to make lanterns. The shapes of the modern lanterns have changed a lot, too.

五、选词填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

从方框中选择恰当的词或短语并用其正确的形式填空，每个单词或短语仅用一次。

56. —Do you have any plans for the coming weekend, Nora?

—I ________ with my cousin in the park.

57. Last week, plenty of leaflets ________ to encourage people to care for the homeless animals.

58. Sugar painting is a kind of ________ folk art.

59. Chinese skiing player Xu Mengtao plans ________ the fifth winter Olympic Games in 2026.

60. — Why are you standing here, Tom?

—I ________ my friend.

61. Everyone can walk to school ________ going by car to reduce pollution.

62. My mother ________ news online when I came home.

63. Lily is a true friend. She always ________ for me.

64. Recently, Zibo ________ special bus lines for tourists to try its barbecue.

65. In Chinese lunar calendar, Rat is the first and the ________ is Pig.

六、阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）

阅读短文，根据短文内容回答问题，每个题目的答案不超过5个单词

Many people love eating sweet food such as chocolate and candy. The Swedes (瑞典人) are no different.

But for most Swedish people, especially kids, they only eat sweets on Saturdays. It is a tradition called Lördagsgodis. In Swedish, Lördags means “Saturday” and godis “means candy”.

How did the tradition come into being? In 1942, the Swedish government found that most people in the country had problems with their teeth. The government tried to find out reasons of the problems. Soon they found people in the country loved sweet food so much and ate a lot of sweet food every day. As a result, many of them had trouble with their teeth.

To help people have healthy teeth, the government made a rule only eat sweets on Saturdays. The government believed that eating a lot of sweets on one day of the week is healthier than eating sweets the whole week. And the government also asked people to eat fewer sweets than before. Then the tradition of Lördagsgodis began.

To help protect the teeth, the Swedes followed the tradition. They ate fewer sweets. And brushing teeth twice a day became a must-do for people in Sweden.

66. When do most Swedish people eat sweets?

67. Who found most people had problems with their teeth?

68. How did the government help people have a healthy teeth?

69. What became a must-do for people in Sweden?

70. What else can we do to protect our teeth?

七、书面表达（25分）

71.情系端午，传承有我。假如你是王明，你的外籍笔友Rick想请你介绍你最喜欢的端午节，请用英语为他回复邮件。内容包括：

注意：（1）短文应包括所给内容要点，可适当发挥，使文章连贯；

（2）词数90左右，短文开头已给出，不计入总词数；

（3）文中不得出现考生的真实姓名、校名等信息。

Dear Rick,

I'm glad to know that you show great interest in traditional Chinese festivals. I'd like to introduce my

favourite one, the Dragon Boat festival to you.____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Yours,

Wang Ming

2023年中考适应性考试

英语试题 参考答案

一、单项选择（每小题1分，共10分）

1-5 ACBCA  6-10 BBDAD

二、完形填空。（每小题1分，共15分）

11-15 BDCAC  16-20 DABDC  21-25 BACDA

三、阅读理解（每小题2分，共40分）

第一节26-28 BDC  29-32 BCDA  33-36 ACDC  37-40 BCCA

第二节41-45 GECAF

四、词汇（每小题1分，共10分）

46. invited  47. diaries  48. wisely  49. natural  50. discussing

51. kinds   52. covered  53. important  54. look   55. outside

五、选词填空（每小题1分，共10分）

56. will/am going to fly kites  57. were handed out   58. traditional

59. to take part in    60. am waiting for    61. instead of

62. was looking through   63. keeps secrets    64. has set up

65. twelfth

六、阅读表达（每小题2分，共10分）

66. On Saturdays.    67. The Swedish government

68. By making a rule.   69. Brushing teeth twice a day.

70. Eat fewer sweets./Keep our teeth clean./...(言之有理即可)

七、书面表达（25分）

One possible version:

Dear Rick,

I’m glad to know that you show great interest in traditional Chinese festivals. I’d like to introduce my favourite one, the Dragon Boat festival to you.

I like the Dragon Boat festival because it is a good time for my family members to get together. And we can enjoy some traditional activities. On that day, we can make rice dumplings with my family and eat them. Besides, people will hold dragon boat races. They are really exciting. In addition, we can share some stories about the festival to each other.

I want to introduce Chinese traditional festivals to people from all over the world and I also hope more people can learn more about Chinese culture. (90词)

Yours,

Wang Ming