2022-2023学年四川省成都市第七中学高二下学期期中考试英语试题含答案

这是一份2022-2023学年四川省成都市第七中学高二下学期期中考试英语试题含答案，共10页。试卷主要包含了5分，满分7等内容，欢迎下载使用。


2022—2023学年度下期高2024届半期考试
英语试卷
考试时间：120分钟
满分：150分
第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分)
回答听力部分时，先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到答
题卡上。
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试
卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读
一遍。
1. Where will the speakers go?
A. Jean’s place.
B. Their hometown.
C. The hospital.
C. The man’s room number.
C. $230.
2. What is the woman asking for?
A. The man’s bill.
B. The man’s key card.
3. How much was the original price of the camera?
A. $300. B. $280.
4. What does the woman want to be?
A. A bank clerk.
B. A nurse.
C. A doctor.
5. What does the woman want to do?
A. Cancel the party.
B. Slow down.
C. Be quick.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，
并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题
将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。
6. What are the speakers talking about?
A. The evening sky.
B. The weather.
C. The school project.
C. The clouds.
7. What pictures did the boy take last week?
A. The moon.
B. The stars.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。
8. What did Natasha like doing when she was 9 years old?
A. Snowboarding.
9. What does Natasha’s father say about sailing?
A. Expensive. B. Exciting.
B. Climbing mountains.
C. Playing computer games.
C. Dangerous.
听下面一段较长对话，回答以下小题。
10. What is the relationship between the speakers?
A. Housemates.
B. Colleagues.
C. Classmates.
C. About 6:00 p. m.
C. Juice.
11. When will the party begin?
A. About 10:00 p. m.
B. About 8:00 p. m.
12. What does the man advise Amy to bring?
A. iPod. B. Beer.
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·Has achieved substantial and long-term benefits to the conservation status of one or more animal or plant
species.
·Must be determined to continue his/her conservation work, as the award aims to stimulate the winner’s
future work. It is not an “end of career” prize.
Additional Remarks
For the 2023 Future For Nature Award, we are again searching for natural leaders, who have proven that they
can make a difference in species’ survival.
From all applications, 6 to 10 nominees (被提名者) will be selected. These applicants will be asked to
provide additional information, which will be used to select the final awardees. Ultimately, three inspiring wildlife
heroes are selected as the winners.
Application Process: Apply online through the Apply Now link.
Application Deadline: May 1st, 2023.
21. Which is one of the aims of the Future For Nature?
A. To aid more green groups.
C. To inspire conservation efforts.
22. The winners will get the chance to ________.
A. consult top specialists
B. To fund academic education.
D. To raise environmental awareness.
B. meet like-minded people
C. benefit the local community
D. promote self-created platforms
23. To apply for the 2023 Future For Nature Award, candidates must ________.
A. meet the age requirement
B. apply via mail by the deadline
D. provide additional personal information
C. turn in the application in English
B
Born with severe hearing loss, Li has found her way to communicate with the world—through painting.
Before learning to paint, Li always felt lonely in a silent world. She knew she was different from her peers
because she could not hear. But a painting class in primary school opened for her a door to creativity and a way of
expression.
“I still remember my first mural, which was to help a kindergarten to design and paint its wall,” Li says. “The
project made me realize how happy I was immersing myself into painting.”
To pursue her passion for art, Li went to study advertising design at a vocational and technical school.
“Painting brushes can help me create a colorful world in my imagination, telling my thoughts on paper, instead of
through voices,” Li said.
Graduating from college in 2005, Li got a job as a typist at a public institute. But she could not communicate
well with her other colleagues. Her husband understood how she felt because he lost his hearing due to medication
when he was 1 year old. He is also an art lover. In March 2016, under her husband’s suggestion, Li quit her job
and joined her husband’s company, which specializes in 3D wall and ground paintings.
Wall painting is a demanding job because it requires people to work outdoors, whether in extremely cold or
hot weather. As all the people are hearing-impaired in their company, communication with clients is the most
common challenge that the team faces.
Now in many parks and scenic spots, the couple have created large-scale murals and interactive pavement
painting that make onlookers a part of the drawings.
“My husband and I want to introduce painting to more people like us and help them find their own way to
make a living,” Li says. Now Li has an apprentice who just graduated from college. While coaching the newcomer,
Li is exploring her own style and hopes to become an illustrator and open her own exhibition one day.
“They’re energetic young people with a passion to create new things, and you can feel that in their paintings,”
one of their clients said. “They’re also a professional, dedicated team, often working late into the night on the
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designs for us.”
Li hopes that their stories can encourage more hearing-impaired people to build their own careers and
achieve their goals, regardless of how tough it may be.
24. According to the passage, the painting class in primary school ________.
A. started Li’s first advertising design
B. helped Li find a new way to express herself
C. made Li learn about 3D wall and ground paintings
D. turned Li’s dream of opening an exhibition into reality
25. What can we know from this passage?
A. Li can communicate with her clients easily.
B. Li lost her hearing when she was 1 year old.
C. Li and her husband have created many wonderful paintings.
D. Li and her husband hope to become illustrators in the future.
26. To help people with hearing loss, what does Li intend to do?
A. Donate money to them.
B. Design painting gifts for them.
C. Inspire them to create their own careers.
27. What does the passage mainly tell us?
A. One is never too old to learn.
D. Support them to complete college education.
B. Failure is the mother of success.
C. Accepting what you have makes you happy.
D. Nothing is impossible to the man who will try.
C
When special occasions such as birthdays or other big holiday events come around, parents often look for
that special toy for their children. But there is a growing understanding that gifts of time and bonding, such as
vacations and other experiences, make better and more lasting gifts for children.
Experts agree that gifting children with memorable trips and fun experiences is better for their body and
mind, and has corresponding positive impacts on the rest of the family!
In a 2017 study that surveyed about 500 women between 18 and 93 years old, Dr. Oravecz, a human
development and family studies professor at Pennsylvania State University, asked, “Most people feel loved
when...” The study showed that the most popular answers had nothing to do with any material item. Dr. Oravecz
said, “Our research found that micro-moments of positivity, like a kind word, a hug with a child or a sympathetic
expression, make people feel most loved.”
Clinical psychologist Oliver James agrees. He stated that as opposed to toys, details from a trip are more
likely to “stick with them for long after the vacation ends.” When families interact in a stress-free environment,
this creates warm, generous feelings towards one another, which are likely to be remembered with fondness.
Vacations create strong emotional responses that don’t often come with material possessions.
In addition, British child psychologist Dr. Margot Sunderland believes that vacations make children smarter.
“What is less widely known is that vacations can also advance brain development in children. This is because on a
family vacation, you are exercising two genetically ingrained systems deep in the brain’s limbic (边缘的 ) area,
which can all too easily be ‘unexercised’ in the home.” Citing the work of neuroscientist Jaak Panksepp, Dr.
Sunderland said, “These are the PLAY system and the SEEKING system.” “The brain’s PLAY system is exercised
every time you bury your child’s feet in the sand or take them for a ride on your back. The SEEKING system is
exercised each time you go exploring together: the beach, a cave, a hidden village...” She continued, “So when
you take your child on a vacation, you are supporting their explorative urge (SEEKING system)—a vital resource
for living life well, and their capacity to play (PLAY system). In adulthood, this translates into the ability to play
with ideas—essential, for example, to the successful entrepreneur(企业家).”
In a busy household, perhaps the fun of having the latest toy may not last, but the space it occupies in the
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house could be there and gather dust. So for the next round of gift-giving with the children, consider an
experiential gift instead. The return is definitely priceless.
28. From Dr. Oravecz’s study, we know that ________.
A. hearing kind words can make a person feel most loved
B. a special toy for a birthday is more lasting for children
C. women at the age of 18 and 93 years old feel more loved
D. the feeling of being loved is closely related to material gifts
29. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. The capacity to play can translate into the ability to seek.
B. The SEEKING system can develop when adventuring in the wild.
C. PLAY and SEEKING systems are more easily exercised at home.
D. Burying your child’s feet in the sand is exercising the SEEKING system.
30. According to the passage, the author may agree that ________.
A. material gifts are better for a child’s body and mind
B. children spending vacations with their parents are more generous
C. trips with family can form better emotional interactions than material gifts
D. vacations with employees are a waste of time for a successful entrepreneur
31. What would be the best title for the text?
A. Vacations Make Children Smarter
C. Trips are priceless
B. Vacations Make Better Gifts
D. Memorable Trips and Fun Experiences
D
Take a look at that tree in the local park. What might it be feeling? Could it be thinking? Experiments are
exploring the idea of plant cognition, even going so far as to suggest they possess some form of consciousness.
As wild as it sounds, it isn’t a new idea. The field of “plant neurobiology (神经生物学 )” began in 2006,
aimed at understanding how plants process information from their environment.
It is now clear that plants are capable of complex communication and can sense their surroundings, which
were originally dismissed. But advocates of plant consciousness take things further and draw parallels between the
electrical signaling that can be found from root to stem and that present in the nervous system of animals. They
claim to show that plants are capable of intentionally choosing to perform certain behaviors, of learning and
perhaps even having personalities. If plants are experiencing a conscious inner world, they argue, it becomes vital
that we find ways to test and understand it.
Extending the concept of cognition to plants would mean a significant shift in our view of the uniqueness of
humanity, not to mention how we treat our botanical friends, so the bar of acceptance is high. Researchers rising
to the challenge are hoping to explore plants with tools usually reserved for the human brain.
The research can appear persuasive, but it is in its early stage and suffers from repeated failure. Critics say
the field is a high guess and that the behaviour can be explained through inborn response.
Whether we decide that plants have cognition may come down to our ability to describe consciousness
itself-something we are far from doing. But rather than dismiss the idea, we should welcome the chance to think
up new ways to test our understanding of consciousness. It might just improve our grasp of the human mind. At
the very least, our trees and plants should benefit from the extra attention—consciously or not.
32. What do supporters of plant consciousness believe?
A. Plants can only perform native reaction.
B. Plants can perceive their surroundings and adapt to them.
C. Plants possess the same level of consciousness as humans.
D. Plants can communicate complicatedly and choose actions deliberately.
33. What is the main challenge in accepting the idea of plant consciousness?
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A. The need to develop tools to test plant cognition.
B. The dramatic change in our view of the distinctiveness of humanity.
C. The lack of evidence in the field of plant neurobiology.
D. The inability to describe consciousness itself.
34. What does the underlined word “dismissed” in Paragraph 3 probably mean?
A. disliked
B. discussed
C. rejected
D. confirmed
35. What is the potential benefit of studying plant consciousness?
A. Enhancing our understanding of the human brain.
C. Promoting our relationship with plants.
B. Developing new ways to test plant behaviors.
D. Proving the existence of plant cognition.
第二节 (共 5小题；每小题 2分,满分 10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为选项
Conscious living is not just a trend. ____36____ It is about being intentional with everything you do — your
words, actions, beliefs, habits, and choices. Accepting conscious living takes some effort, but it is worthwhile.
Here are some ways you can achieve this goal.
●Be conscious about your time.
Time is the most precious thing because there is no way to live a moment again. ____37____ If you waste
your precious hours doing negative things, you will regret it later. The first step for living consciously is to be
wise about your time. Be selective about things you spend it on, and allocate (分配) it for positive activities.
●____38____
This is the key to unlocking personal growth and happiness. You cannot achieve them unless you understand
your needs and intentions. It is easier said than done because most people fail to make an effort to know
themselves. Spend time thinking over and knowing your strengths and weaknesses. Once you know yourself
better, you can create a plan to work towards becoming more patient, honest, and forgiving.
●Learn to be grateful.
Gratitude takes you a long way towards conscious living. It opens you up to a happier and a fulfilled mindset.
Most people are unhappy because they see only the negatives in life. However, everyone has something to be
grateful for. Writing a gratitude journal is a good start for counting your blessings. ____39____
●Believe in yourself.
It is the key to making the right choices, yet not regretting the wrong ones. ____40____ Spending time alone
and thinking deeply are effective measures that enable you to identify the inner voice. Care for it and follow it to
make it stronger down the line.
Conscious living is a skill you need to learn as you go, so be willing to make the effort and master it. You
will absorb it soon and be a happier person in the long run.
A. Know yourself better.
B. Accept the person you are.
C. Life can be a lot better with the right decisions.
D. It is a healthy choice that enables you to be happy.
E. Pick it as a daily habit, and you will notice the difference.
F. The way you spend your time determines the course of your life.
G. The best way to build self-belief is by reflecting on your own thoughts.
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第三部分
第一节
英语知识运用
完形填空 (共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项 A、B、C和 D中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
People are looking to make meaning these days, after the profound upheaval of the past few years. And one
way that some of us do this is by looking for guidance or comfort in __41___, the unexpected concurrence of
events.
After Carla Kaufman Sloan lost her __42___ son in an accident eight years ago, when he was 7, she began
noticing heart shapes, often when she felt __43___. It started the first time she took her younger son back to a
restaurant __44___ by both her boys. As she walked in, trying not to__45___, she saw a heart-shaped __46___.
“I showed it to my son, who __47___ it was from his brother,” says Ms. Kaufman Sloan, who is a TV producer
and writer in Miami. __48___, she began noticing more heart __49___, not only in leaves, but also puddles, rocks
and clouds. On a beach in Mexico, she __50___ at a pile of seaweed and discovered a red plastic heart. __51___ it
up, she saw that it was from a toy __52___ the one that had helped her son learn about shapes __53___ he was a
baby. She took the plastic heart __54___ --- and found it fits __55___ into a slot (狭槽) in her son’s old toy. What
a coincidence! “It helps to __56___ there is more to our daily lives than the surface,” she says.
Paying attention to coincidences may help us, especially __57___ stress, and can aid us in making decisions,
calm us in __58___ and help us feel more connected to others and __59___. Studies show that noticing
coincidences may help boost both the __60___ of psychotherapy (心理疗法) and mental well-being.
41. A. accidents
42. A. lovely
B. incidents
B. beloved
B. lonely
C. coincidences
C. older
D. conflicts
D. eldest
43. A. sad
C. tired
D. disappointed
D. loved
44. A. run
B. chosen
B. cry
C. missed
45. A. shout
C. laugh
D. fear
46. A. leaf
B. card
C. letter
D. box
47. A. doubted
48. A. However
49. A. toys
B. suggested
B. Anyhow
B. goods
C. admitted
C. After that
C. objects
D. declared
D. In addition
D. shapes
50. A. looked up
51. A. Cleaning
52. A. similar to
53. A. because
54. A. home
B. looked down
B. Picking
B. worthy of
B. though
B. up
C. turned round
C. Polishing
C. different from
C. when
D. turned off
D. Putting
D. familiar to
D. until
C. down
D. away
55. A. immediately
56. A. realize
57. A. in honor of
58. A. wonder
59. A. more innovative
60. A. combination
B. probably
B. recall
C. specially
C. determine
C. in favor of
C. grief
D. perfectly
D. decide
B. in search of
B. disgust
B. less alone
B. effectiveness
D. in times of
D. embarrassment
D. less happier
D. consequence
C. more confident
C. advancement
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第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容 (1个单词 )或括号内单词的正确形式。
Penicillin(青霉素) is widely considered___61___ (be) one of the most important medical discoveries in
history, but it was not what Alexander Fleming was looking for when he found it___62___September 1928.
Fleming,___63___scientist from Scotland, returned to his laboratory after a holiday and found some mould(
霉菌) on one of his___64___ (plate) of bacteria(细菌). He observed that the bacteria___65___ (surround) the
mould were dead. Surprised by this, Fleming performed some tests. The results indicated that something produced
by the mould had killed the bacteria. He was ___66___ (whole) aware that it could be very ___67___ (use) for
treating wounds.
For more than 10 years, Fleming had been researching penicillin and trying to make ___68___ into an
effective medicine. Finally, his work caught the attention of some other scientists ___69___were able to do it.
Since its mass production began in the1940s, penicillin ___70___ (save) millions of lives.
第四部分写作(共两节，满分35分)
第一节短文改错(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共 10处语言错
误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号 (∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线 ( \ )划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意：1．每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2．只允许修改 10处，多者 (从第 11处起)不计分。
Hello, everyone. It's nice to speak about that we can do for our school, and I think small actions can make big
difference. The first thing we can do is to make our campus more beautifully. Every one of them may plant a tree
in the school or to organize a thorough cleaning on the campus. We can also form a good habit of putting
rubbishes into trashcans. Never forget to turn off the lights and close the doors. We should not leave the tap water
run or waste any materials in the laboratory class. In that case, I believe we'll turn our school in a better place to
study and live in. How I wish we can enjoy a better school life!
Thank you for listening!
第二节书面表达(满分25分)
假定你是学生会主席李华。为了迎接成都大运会的到来和增强学生体质，你校下周举办为期一周的体
育周活动。请你向全校学生写一封倡议信；
内容包括：
1.活动意义；
2.体育周的具体安排；
3.号召参加。
注意：1.词数100左右；
2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
参考词汇：成都大运会 Chengdu Universiade
Dear fellow students,
___________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________
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2022-2023学年度下期高2024届半期考试
英语参考答案及评分标准
第一部分听力（满分 30分）
1~5 ABBCC 6~10 CACAB
11~15 BCBCB
28~31 ABCB
16~20 BACAA
32~35 DBCA
评分标准：1~20小题，每小题 1.5分。
第二部分第一节阅读理解（满分 30分）
21~23 CBA
24~27 BCCD
评分标准：21~35小题，每小题 2分。
第二节（满分 10分） 36~40 DFAEG
评分标准：36~40小题，每小题 2分。
第三部分第一节完形填空（满分 30分）
41~45 CCADB
46~50 ADCDB
51~55 BACAD
65. surrounding
56~60 ADCBB
评分标准：41~60小题，每小题 1.5分。
第二节语法填空（满分 15分）
61. to be
62. in
63. a 64. plates
66.wholly
67. useful
68.it
69. who/that 70. has saved
评分标准：61~70小题，每小题 1.5分。有任何错误，包括用词错误、单词拼写错误（含大小写）或
语法形式错误，均不给分。
第四部分第一节短文改错（满分 10分）
1. that→what
2.make后加 a
3.beautifully→beautiful
4. them→us
9.in→into
5.去掉 organize前的 to
6.rubbishes→rubbish 7.and→or
8.run→running
10.can→could
评分标准：有任何错误，包括用词错误、单词拼写错误（含大小写）或语法形式错误，均不给分。
第二节书面表达（满分 25分）
一、各档次语言要点配分参考标准
档次
要点数
语言要点表达情况划档根据
要点分
21~25
16~20
11~15
第五档
第四档
第三档
第二档
第一档
5
4
3
2
1
语言基本无误,行文连贯，表达清楚
语言有少量错误，行文基本连贯，表达基本清楚
语言有一些错误，尚能表达
语言错误很多，影响表达
6~10
0~5
只能写出与要求内容有关的一些单词
二、内容要点认定及计分参考标准
1.写作背景（阐述清楚，表达正确，计 4分）；
2.活动意义（阐述清楚，表达正确，计 7分）；
3.体育周具体安排（阐述清楚，表达正确，计 7分）；
4.号召参加（阐述清楚，表达正确，计 7分）；
第1页（共2页）