江西省南昌市2020-2022年三年中考二模英语试卷分类汇编：阅读理解

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江西省南昌市
2020-2022年三年中考二模英语试卷分类汇编
阅读理解
2022年江西省南昌市中考二模英语试题
四、阅读单选
Bulletin Board (公告栏)
David the musical (音乐剧)
Fun Market
At the Great Theatre, Green Street Tue. 31 July-Sun.12 August
Tickets only available at the Great Theatre ticket office.
Shepton town square
Thurs. -Sun.: 10 a.m. -11 p.m.
Traditional crafts (手工艺品), food, drinks, sports and games
Sci-fi Festival
Help wanted
Sat. 28 July
12 p.m. -12 a.m.
At the Phoenix Arts Centre
Admission (入场费):
﹩15 children & seniors (老年人)
﹩20 adults
Full & Part-time jobs now offered
Part-time Cook needed for our store in Brandon.
Full-Time Breakfast Cook needed for our store in East Middlebury.
Apply (申请) in person at the store or online at www.maplefields.com

29．Where can we get traditional crafts?A．At the Sci-fi Festival. B．At the Great Theatre.
C．At Shepton town square. D．At the store in Brandon.
30．Mr. Smith is taking a child and a senior to the Sci-fi Festival, how much should he pay?
A．＄45. B．＄50. C．＄55. D．＄60.
31．Which of the following is true?
A．David the musical will be on for 12 days.
B．The store in Brandon only offers Part-time job.
C．We can buy tickets for David the musical online.
D．We can only apply for the job in person at the store.

Chinese sprinter (短跑运动员) Su Bingtian won the men’s 100m semifinals (半决赛) during the Tokyo 2020 Olympic Games on August 1, 2021. He finally achieved his goal in his third Olympic Games. He has already run below 10 seconds in 100m competitions twice this year. He finished the preliminary race (预赛) at 10.05 seconds before admitting it was not the best he could do.
Su Bingtian set a new Asian record in the men’s 100-meter race with a time of 9.83 seconds at the Tokyo Olympics semifinals to become the first Chinese sprinter to qualify (取得资格) for the final of the event. He also became the first Asian athlete to reach the Olympic final of the event since the digital timer (数字计时器) was introduced.
Though he did not win a medal, Su was a breakout star for Team China in Tokyo First, he set a new Asian record of 9.83 seconds in the men’s 100m semifinal, becoming the first Chinese sprinter to reach the final of the event at an Olympics. Then Su finished sixth in the final, which was also history-making performance.
After that, Su joined in the men’s 4 x100m relay event and again made the final and finished fourth in the final. Su Bingtian will be the flag-bearer (旗手) of the Chinese delegation at the closing ceremony of the Tokyo Olympics on Sunday. “This will be my second time to attend the closing ceremony, the first time was in the last Olympic Games,” Su told China Media Group.
32．How much did Su improve from the preliminary race to the men’s 100-meter race?
A．0.22 seconds. B．10.05 seconds. C．0.18 seconds. D．9.83 seconds.
33．What can we infer from paragraph 2?
A．Asian athletes did quite well in men’s 100m race.
B．Su won the final of men’s 100m race at 9.83 seconds.
C．Su was the first Asian to finish the men’s 100m race at 9.83 seconds.
D．Chinese sprinters have entered the final of the men’s 100m race before.
34．Put Su’s achievements in the correct time order. _________
a. Winning the men’s 100m semifinals.
b. Finishing sixth in the men’s 100m final.
c. Finishing the preliminary race at 10.05 seconds.
d. Finishing fourth in the men’s 4 x100m relay event.
A．d-a-c-b B．c-a-b-d C．c-d-a-b D．a-c-b-d

Most kids like to play video games. But did you know that some people consider gaming a sport? When people play in video game competitions, it’s called e-Sports.
Stanford University held the first e-Sports event in 1972. Students competed while playing a popular video game. In 1980, the Space Invaders Championship was the first official video game competition. Ten thousand people watched the event.
Anyone can play video games. You don’t have to be strong or tall to be good at them. Gaming takes skills and practice, however. In this way, the training can be much the same as in traditional sports. Playing video games can be good for you, too. You need to do things over and over again in a game, such as hitting a ball. Studies say this trains the brain to work better in real life.
There are summer camps where kids go to develop their gaming skills. Gamers can be part of an Sports team in college, much like being on a soccer team. Some kids enjoy playing so much that they plan to do it as a job. Professional gamers play against each other to win big prize money.
Others say gaming can’t be a sport because it isn’t athletic. Some feel that kids spend too much time inside with made-up characters. They say that kids should go outside and get some exercise instead. Some parents worry about bad things their kids could learn from playing video games. For example, if children play games with lots of fighting, that might make them become very furious easily.
Like most sports, there are some good and bad things about gaming.
35．What does Paragraph 2 mainly about?
A．The first e-Sport event.
B．The popularity of e-Sport events.
C．Important e-Sport events in history.
D．The first official video game competition.
36．What do e-Sports and traditional sports have in common?
A．They are both expensive.
B．They both take skill and practice.
C．They are both popular among kids and parents.
D．They are both played among made-up characters.
37．What does the underlined word “furious” in Paragraph 6 mean?
A．Angry. B．Hungry. C．Excited. D．Surprised.
38．What would be the best title for the passage?
A．A Popular Video Game. B．Why You Should Play E-sports.
C．E-sports and Traditional Sports. D．E-sports: The Future of Sports?

How does it feel when someone listens to you without stopping or giving their opinion? This is called active listening and it’s a great way to understand other people’s feelings and build trust between friends.
The meaning of active listening
Active listening means trying to understand how someone feels by listening carefully to what they’re saying and by paying attention to their body language (how their face and body express their feelings). The Week Junior reader Annie, aged 11, explains what it means to her. “When my friends tell me something important, I listen to what they’re trying to say. I can tell by their voices and the looks on their faces if they’re upset or happy. This makes me feel like I understand them better.”
The reasons of being active listeners
Listening closely to someone without stopping or giving your own opinion shows that you’re interested in what they’re saying, even if you don’t agree. This helps to avoid mistakes and arguments and can make friendship strong. Samaritans is a charity that supports people by listening to their worries. It says, “Really listening to people makes them feel valued and understood, and being able to listen well to others helps you be someone who others feel they can turm to and trust.”
The ways to be active listeners
Listen carefully to what your friend is saying, and avoid jumping in with your own thoughts and feelings. If you really want to talk, Samaritans suggests making a listening sign like nodding your head instead. Ask questions or say things that need more than a yes or no answer, like “Tell me more”. Try looking for more information about how they’re feeling in their faces and bodies too. “Active listening is a skill and it takes practice,” says Samaritans, “but don’t give up, and remember you can only do your best.”
39．How does the writer explain active listening?
A．By making a list. B．By asking questions. C．By sharing numbers. D．By giving an example.
40．What does the underlined word “it” in paragraph 2 refer to?
A．Body language. B．Active listening. C．Paying attention. D．The Week Junior.
41．How can you be an active listener according to the passage?
A．Express your ideas freely.
B．Never ask questions or say anything.
C．Nod your head when you want to share your opinions.
D．Feel others’ feelings only by listening to what they say.
42．Which of the following best shows the structure of the passage?
A． B． C． D．

Ordering food has never become easier. All you need to do is just open an app, place your order, and wait for your food to be delivered（递送）to your home—this is how people eat in China these days. According to the latest report from the China Internet Information Center, 421 million Chinese people use online food delivery services. That’s half of the total number of Internet users in China.
_________. Unsurprisingly, it’s mainly young people. A recent report from Meituan, a food delivery service, showed that 86.3 percent of the service’s users are between 20 and 34 years old. These people are the main force making the development of the food delivery industry（行业）.
Small families depend greatly on food delivery services. According to the National Bureau of Statistics, Chinese families have changed in size over the past ten years. In 2004, only 7.7 percent of people lived alone. But this number added up to 15.6 percent in 2019. For small families, cooking takes more time, so ordering food online has become more popular.
The improvement of China’s food delivery services has also attracted more customers. According to Meituan’s report, the time it takes to make a food delivery dropped from 38 minutes in 2016 to 29 minutes in 2019. Meituan is also offering more services, delivering products such as fruit, vegetables, medicine and flowers. As its services improve, it’s likely that the food delivery industry will keep growing.
43．According to the passage, how many Internet users are there in China?
A．210.5 million. B．222 million C．421 million. D．842 million.
44．Choose the best sentence to fill in the blank"_________"in Paragraph 2.
A．Who is ordering food online the most? B．Who is delivering the food to your home?
C．What's the most popular food delivery app? D．How old are the users of food delivery services?
45．What can we learn from Paragraph 3 and 4?
A．Fewer people lived alone in China in 2019.
B．The food delivery industry has many problems.
C．Food delivery takes longer because of more customers.
D．Small families make food delivery service more popular.
46．What is the passage mainly about?
A．The changed world. B．A food ordering app.
C．The food delivery industry. D．Young people’s eating habits.


五、阅读还原7选5
Shopping may he bad for your wallet but it is good for your health, say some experts. Recent studies have shown that “retail therapy”（购物治疗法）is a good way of helping people to deal with sadness. ____47____ However, making decisions about what to buy helps get back the feelings of control over environment and self.
____48____ Getting something at a low price, for example, can also build up one’s feelings of self-worth.
Shopping for other people can also help people form healthy relationships. ____49____ This connection can make them happier because they feel closer to their family.
____50____ A recent article in The Daily Telegraph newspaper in Britain said that walking and carrying shopping bags can burn off 385 calories in a week. And one shopping center in England did an interesting study. ____51____ Men can walk for only 1.5 miles during their average weekly shopping, which usually lasts about 50 minutes per week. A charity known as The Heart Foundation also advises people to shop because it prevents them from sitting, which can be very bad for the heart.
A．Shopping is the most popular activity in people’s life.
B．Shopping can also be considered a way to help people lift spirits.
C．In Britain, people spend more money on shopping than the body building.
D．Unhappy people often believe that they cannot control the things around them.
E．For example, grandparents can get close to grandchildren by getting them new toys.
F．Shopping can help improve a person’s mood and it can also be good for your physical health.
G．It says that women walk about three miles for every two and a half hours of weekly shopping.

2021年江西省南昌市中考二模英语试题
八、阅读单选
Calendar of Events
MAY4
ChesterStory Time at Misty Valley: A small Blue Whale held at Phoenix Books; 11:00 A．M. Enjoy a spring Saturday morning with Gramma Ray and join us for a reading of the children’s book. A Small Blue Whale by Beth Ferry and Lisa Mundorff. After we read together, we will have a fun activity! 802 -875 -3400
MAY 11
BrandonSilent Movie Festival with Live Music, “Safety Last” held at Brandon Town Hall; 7:00 P.M. Harold Lloyd stars in “Safety Last”( 1923 ),to be screened with live music. For more information, please visit : www. brandontownhall. org.
Free, donations(捐赠) accepted.
MAY 8
Burlington Community(社区) Dinner held at Pathways Vermont Community Center; 5:00 P. M. The Pathways Vermont Community. Center offers regular meals to the public for free.
MAY 11
BurlingtonFree Family Saturdays: A Family Dance Party held at Flynn Center for the Performing Arts; 10:00 A．M. Free family musical programs held in the Flynn’s lobby on the following Saturday mornings at 10 a. m. For more information, see the website at https:// www. flynncenter. org

55．Who is going to read the children’s book?A．Gramma Ray. B．Beth Ferry. C．Lisa Mundorff. D．Harold Lloyd.
56．Where can we go for fun on a Saturday night?
A．Phoenix Books. B．Brandon Town Hall.
C．The Pathways Vermont Community Center. D．Flynn Center for the Performing Arts.
57．Which of the following is true according to the calendar above?
A．Community Dinner isn’t for everyone.
B．We don’t have to pay for any of the events above.
C．Silent Movie Festival offers live music and dance parties.
D．Free family musical programs are held every Saturday morning.

Florence Nightingale made nursing a respectable profession for women. She was born in 1820 into a rich British family. She was in her twenties when she became interested in health care. Her parents were quite surprised to know their daughter’s interest, because rich women did not work at all in those days. However, Nightingale did not change her mind and in the end her parents allowed her to train as a nurse for three months in Germany. After that, she worked in London in a hospital for women.
In 1854, Britain, France and Turkey went to war against Russia. When reports about the awful conditions for the wounded and sick soldiers appeared in The Times, Nightingale was asked to take some nurses to the military(军队的) hospitals. While working there, she became famous and money was collected for her work.
She returned to London in 1856. At first, she hid herself away from attention, but later, she set up a training school for nurses in London. After completing their training, the nurses worked in hospitals all over Britain and Nightingale’s influence spread. Florence Nightingale continued to work to improve public health for the rest of her life.
58．Where was Florence Nightingale trained as a nurse?
A．In Britain. B．In France. C．In Russia. D．In Germany.
59．What can we know about Nightingale?
A．She took an interest in health care when she was twelve.
B．She became famous and got some money during the war.
C．She used to have a job in Paris in a hospital for children.
D．She tried to hide herself and got married to a doctor in London.
60．What does Paragraph 3 mainly talk about?
A．The terrible conditions in London.
B．How Nightingale became famous.
C．What Nightingale did for public health.
D．Nightingale’s life during the war.

Some children do too much homework. According to data from the US Department of Education, if you spend more than two hours doing your homework, it can be bad for your marks.
Researchers looked at the math scores of students in the eighth grade and the amount of homework they did. Then the results were compared with similar studies of homework in other countries. They expected the results to be similar around the world but they weren’t.
In the US scores are the best for students when they do about one hour of homework each night. When they keep studying two or more hours their marks begin to fall.
In Japan when students study for more than two hours their marks start going down—but only slightly (轻微地).
Canadian students seem to benefit from between one and two hours of homework – but when they do more, they don’t manage to improve their result. They are about the same as when they work for only one hour!
German students get higher marks when they do two to three hours homework a night, but risk getting lower scores when they do three or more hours.
The conclusion (结论) seems to be that you should avoid spending too much time on your homework.
61．What does the underlined word “they” in Paragraph 2 refer to?
A．The researchers. B．The students. C．The results. D．The studies.
62．Whose marks seem to be least influenced by the length of time they spend?
A．Students from the Us.
B．Students from the Japan.
C．Students from Canada.
D．Students from Germany.
63．Match the countries with the information and choose the right answer.
①the US  a. Students get almost the same result when they study for 1 or 2 hours.
②Japan   b. Students do best when they do about one hour of homework every night.
③Canada  c. Students’ marks go down a little when they study for more than two hours.
④Germany d. Students get higher marks when they do 2 to 3 hours of homework a night.
A．①-c ②- a ③-b ④-d B．①-c ②-d ③-a ④-b
C．①-b ②-a ③-c ④-d D．①-b ②-c③-a ④-d
64．What can we learn from the passage?
A．The US Department of Education encourages students to do more homework.
B．Spending one hour on homework is the best way to improve student’s marks.
C．Spending too much time on homework doesn’t mean you can get higher grades.
D．It is believed that the more homework students do, the higher marks they’ll get.

People today take lots of photos. Many people use cell phones to take photos of their everyday life, with friends and family. Some photos are really special. They may show beautiful places or important events, like birthday parties or weddings. Years later, people may, look at, these special photos to remember the past.
But how did people record important events before there were cameras? How did people long ago remember the past?
Some people told stories about the past. Others wrote down the things they remembered. Some people made drawings. These helped them remember important events. One group of people who made drawings to remember the past was the Lakota tribe(部落). The people of the Lakota tribe were native Americans.
Every winter, Lakota leaders picked the most important event from the year. A Lakota artist then drew a picture of that event. These drawings were called winter counts. This is because the event for each picture was picked in the winter. For a long time, these pictures were drawn on animal skins. Later, they were drawn on paper.
The winter counts showed the Lakota tribe’s history. Each year, the new drawing was added to the rest of the winter counts. That helped people keep track of the years.
Today, winter counts are important records of the Lakota tribe’s past.
65．How many ways were used to record important events before the camera was invented in the passage?
A．Two. B．Three. C．Four. D．Five.
66．Which kind of photo from today is most similar to the winter counts?
A．Photographs of famous people.
B．Photographs of beautiful places.
C．Photographs of special or important events.
D．Photographs of daily life from mobile phones.
67．Which of the following is true according to the passage?
A．The Lakota people like to draw pictures of the winter.
B．The events for winter counts were chosen in the winter.
C．People can only find winter counts on animal skins.
D．Each year, new drawings replace the old winter counts.
68．What is the main idea of this passage?
A．The Lakota people's winter counts are very interesting.
B．The Lakota people drew winter counts to practice their drawing skills.
C．The winter counts helped Lakota's people remember important events over the years.
D．Cameras have made it a lot easier for people to remember important events over the years.

The American west is full of “ghost towns”, where people left everything behind to find new homes. Now a “ghost city” is being built in the US. It won’t be abandoned. It will be used to test the technology of the future.
Called CITE—the Center for Innovation (创新), Testing and Evaluation (测评) — the city will cover an area of 39 square kilometers in the middle of the New Mexico desert. The city was proposed (提议) by Pegasus Global Holdings, a technology company.
Why build a city that nobody lives in? Because new technologies may cause problems or even be dangerous. In a “ghost city”, they can be tested for safety.
“It will be a true laboratory without the problems and safety issues (问题) that come with people living there. Here you can break things and run into things, and get used to how they work, before taking them out into the market,” said Pegasus managing director Robert Brumley in Wired magazine.
Without the worry of harming people, any new idea can be tested in this city. Just think about the possibilities — driverless cars can move freely on the streets, robot homes can be designed and drone delivery can be used for mailing packages.
There’s just one problem with CITE. “People can suddenly jump out in front of something,” Reese Jones, a founder of Singularity University, US, told Fortune magazine.
Jones is worried that even if a technology works perfectly in CFTE, it will not work well in a place full of people.
69．What does the underlined word “abandoned” in Paragraph 1 mean?
A．Given up. B．Set up. C．Made use of. D．Put off.
70．Why is the “ghost city” being built?
A．For shooting movies.
B．To test new technology.
C．To give homeless people a place to live.
D．To help people experience life in a ghost town.
71．What is the problem with CITE according to Jones?
A．It is not a true laboratory.
B．Testing in CITE will be expensive.
C．The test results might not work in real cities.
D．There won’t be anyone who can fix things if they break in CITE.
72．What would be the best title for the passage?
A．Testing in Empty Cities.
B．Discussions about Ghost Towns.
C．Technology of the Future.
D．Mysteries of the American West.


九、阅读还原7选5
Hello, my name is Vernon Marchewski and I’m going to tell you about the best ways to improve your fitness. If you’re interested in being an athlete, or just doing sport for fun, this advice is for you.
I think the most important thing is to choose a workout that you enjoy. ____73____ You need to do something that will motivate (激励) you, so avoid activities that are too hard for you, or boring.
____74____ Try a new activity, or change how long you spend doing something, and how difficult you make it.
Another great way to motivate yourself is to make sure you have goals. For example, if you run 5 km a day, try to increase it to 6. But be careful, don’t over train. ____75____
Look after yourself. ____76____ A healthy diet is the best way to a healthy body.
Finally, only use proper equipment. ____77____ Only wear good running shoes, and invest in comfortable clothing.
A．Don’t cycle if you don’t like cycling.
B．Find someone you know to join you.
C．Remember to eat good food and drink lots of water.
D．If you cycle, have your bicycle checked and repaired regularly.
E．The equipment might-not be of much help if you are good enough.
F．This can lead to injury, and your body needs to rest as well as work hard.
G．To make your workout more fun and challenging, do it a bit differently each time.
2020年江西省南昌市中考二模英语试题
四、阅读理解（40分）
A）请阅读下面短文, 根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。（每小题2分）
A
Mike's Clothes Store
80% off June 10th～July 1lth
Opening hours:8:30 a. m. ～9:00 p. m.
Address:16 Green Street.
For more details, please call us at 554988. No checks（支票）or credit cards accepted.
Riverside Restaurant
Great lunches and dinners(very low prices).
Excellent Chinese and Japanese food.
Live band in the evening at weekends.
Address: 35 Brown Street.
Opening hours:11:00 a. m. ～11:00 p. m.
Sunshine Bookstore
90% off Aug. 15th～Sept. 1lth
Opening hours:8:00 a. m. ～8:00 p. m.
(From Monday to Saturday)
Address: 56 Long Street.
Lucy's Flower Store
All kinds of beautiful flowers.
Opening hours:8:00 a. m. ～9:30 p. m.
Address:28 Bridge Street.
Get more information at http://www. luf. com
61. If Lily wants to buy a dress for her mother, where can she go?
A. 56 Long Street. B. 16 Green Street. C. 35 Brown Street. D. 28 Bridge Street.
62. When can Alan buy his favorite book in Sunshine Bookstore?
A. At 7:30 a. m. , on Aug. 16th. B. At 10:00 a. m. , on Sunday.
C. At 3:00 p. m. , on Monday. D. At 8:30 p. m. , on Friday.
63. Who may we meet in the Riverside Restaurant?
A. Liza, a girl who only likes American food.
B. Bob, a boy who wants to have breakfast.
C. Mark, a man who wants to buy a coat now.
D. Andy, a singer who works in a rock band.
B
Millions of people in the UK play video games for fun. Some of them have become professional gamers, playing games as their full-time job. It's not easy being a professional gamer. They have to practice for 10 or more hours a day, five or six days a week. They do exercises such as typing something and then trying to type it faster and faster. They also study videos of other players and plan ways to beat them.
As well as playing games, many people like watching them, too. You can watch games online. In the UK, there's a TV channel that shows esports 24 hours a day. They can be exciting to watch: just like other sports, there are close games, last-minute victories and amazing performances.
But are esports really sports? Some say no. Esports players don't need to run, jump, throw or do anything too physical. At the moment, the UK Government classify（把……归类）esports as gaming, not sports. But other people say yes—esports are sports. Players do need some physical skills, especially hand-eye coordination（配合）, quick reflexes（反应）, accuracy （精准度）and so on. In fact, the governments of China and Republic of Korea do classify es-ports as sports, and they will be an official medal sport in the Asian Games starting from 2022.
For many esports fans and players, the most important thing is that esports are growing in popularity and importance. If esports are not as important as sports at the moment, they will be popular with young people in the near future.
64. Why is it difficult for people to be a professional gamer?
A. Because they have to pay lots of money for esports.
B. Because the governments classify esports as sports.
C. Because their parents don't allow them to play games.
D. Because they have to practice games for a long time.
65. What does the underlined word "them" refer to?
A. Other players. B. The games. C. Other sports. D. The videos.
66. Where can we find a TV channel that shows esports?
A. In China. B. In America. C. In England. D. In Republic of Korea.
67. What can we infer from the passage?
A. Esports players will run faster, jump higher and throw farther.
B. Esports will be popular with all people in different countries.
C. Middle school students won't be allowed to play esports at all.
D. More and more Chinese people will play esports in two years.
C
Katy Sullivan is an actress, an athlete, and a person who refuses to use the words “no” or “I can't”. She grew up in Alabama, US and had an active childhood. She kept up with her sisters and brothers at the gym and in the swimming pool. However, she was born with no legs and has to wear prosthetic legs all her life. But she feels lucky because her family has treated her the same way they would treat anyone.
When a person is born without legs, there are lots of things that are difficult to do. But Sullivan believes she can do anything. She chose to do two things that are difficult even with both legs. As a teenager, she saw a movie that made a big impression on her. Before it was over, Sullivan had made up her mind to be an actress. She earned a degree in theater and then moved to Los Angeles, where she has played roles in theater, television and movies. She has a positive view of life. She thinks that if you believe you can do something, you should go for it. So when Sullivan's friend asked her whether she'd like to try running, she said “yes”. She was given a pair of running legs and started running.
Sullivan was the first person in the world with two prosthetic legs to take up running as a competitive sport. She entered the final of the 100 meters in the 2012 London Paralympics. Sullivan's family, friends and fans look up to her as an example of someone who has overcome difficulties and achieved her dreams.
68. Which of the following is TRUE about Katy Sullivan's childhood?
A. She had no friends and felt very lonely.
B. She had no money and lived a hard life.
C. Her parents didn't like her very much.
D. She got on well with her sisters and brothers.
69. What does the underlined word "prosthetic" in Paragraph 1 mean?
A. Strong. B. Long. C. Waste. D. Unreal.
70. Which of the following is the RIGHT order for Sullivan?
a. She earned a degree in theater and moved to Los Angeles.
b. She played roles in theater, television and movies.
c. She saw a movie that made a big impression on her.
d. She had made up her mind to be an actress.
A. a-c-b-d. B. c-d-a-b. C. c-a-d-b. D. d-a-b-c.
71. What's the main idea of this passage?
A. How Sullivan's family members treated her in her childhood.
B. Why an American lost her legs and failed in the Paralympics.
C. How a brave girl tried her best and made her dreams come true.
D. What Sullivan's friends and fans did for Sullivan and her dreams.
D
Since the founding of the People's Republic of China, the central government has placed great importance on environmental protection. Great achievements have been made in this area in recent ten years through strong measures（措施）.
On the one hand, they fight desertification（荒漠化）.
Desertification has been a major challenge for China. In the early 2lst century, many parts of the country, including Xinjiang, Gansu and Inner Mongolia, were affected by sandstorms. During a sandstorm, large amounts of sand is blown into the air by strong winds. They usually happen in deserts. They can do great harm to plants, animals and buildings. In recent years, the government has tried to prevent deserts from growing in size and bringing more sandstorms. Planting trees has played an important role. China's total forest coverage（覆盖率）rose from 12% in the 1980s to 22. 96% last year. The total desert coverage has been reduced by an average of 2, 424 square kilometers every year. That's as big as 340, 000soccer fields. One example of this is the Mu Us Desert（毛乌素沙漠）, one of China's four major deserts. One quarter of the desert has been turned into forest.
On the other hand, they control air pollution. China has improved its air quality in recent years. Back in January 2013, thick smog（雾霾）covered a total area of 2. 7 million square kilo-meters in cities around China. To solve this problem, the government rolled out a series of measures to control air pollution. For example, Chinese government promoted （推广） clean energy and encouraged the use of new-energy vehicles instead of gas-powered cars.
President Xi said "clear waters and lush mountains are invaluable assets". We believe that more and more trees will be planted in our country and the day will come soon when people will take in only clean air.
72. What did the Chinese government do to prevent deserts from growing?
A. Promoted clean energy.
B. Used new-energy buses.
C. Planted more trees.
D. Took gas-powered cars.
73. What's the main idea of Paragraph 3?
A. The Chinese government tried their best to control air pollution.
B. China has improved its air and water quality in the past ten years.
C. The thick smog covered 27 cities and villages of northern China.
D. The air pollution in China has been controlled very well in 2013.
74. Why did President Xi say “clear waters and lush mountains are invaluable assets”?
A. Because the trees and water can make a lot of money for people.
B. Because people don't like money but they like trees and water.
C. Because people can't live well without clear water and green trees.
D. Because the trees and water are more important than people's health.
75. What would be the best title for the passage?
A. Serious Desertification B. Forest Coverage in China
C. New Clean Energy in the Future D. Strong Measures About Environmental Protection
B）请先阅读下面短文, 掌握其大意, 然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个还原到文中, 使短文意思通顺、结构完整。（每小题2分）
Back in 2008, Chinese singer Hua Chenyu was just 18 years old. He knew that the Bird's Nest was the biggest stadium（体育馆）in all of China when the Summer Olympics opened in Beijing. He never thought that he would sing there. 76__________And he became the first singer born in the 1990s to hold a concert at the Bird's Nest.
In fact, the 30-year-old boy has set several music-related records. On Dec. 4th, 2019, he released the song How I'd Like to Love This World on NetEase's Cloud Music（网易云音乐）. Within only half an hour, it sold more than 3million copies, becoming the app's best-selling song of 2019. 77_________ However, when he wrote this song, he got a bad illness and he was not happy on those days. So the song encourages people to embrace（拥抱） and love themselves, as well as the world. More than 100, 000 listeners have shared their feelings about the song. 78
Hua had a hard time growing up. His parents got divorced（离婚）when he was a child. The boy often stayed alone at home, scared in the dark. 79 __________ And his deep love for music inspired（激励）him to learn the piano and the flute（笛子）. He started writing songs in the middle school. Later, he went to Wuhan Conservatory of Music. “I never feel lost, because I am focusing on what I like, " he said.
80___________ When you make a big decision, people around you might doubt you or make fun of you. But you don't need to care about them. Just do what you want to do and try your best. “Where there is a will, there is a way”.
A. It has sold over 8 million copies so far.
B. It's important to learn music when we grow up.
C. There will be more and more concerts in the future.
D. But in 2018, Hua gave a concert at the Bird's Nest.
E. From his story, we know that nothing is impossible.
F. Music has helped him get over his loneliness over the years.
G. They say it is “warm” and “touching”, even bringing some of them to tears.

答案：
2022年江西省南昌市中考二模英语试题
29．C    30．B    31．B
32．A    33．C    34．B
35．C    36．B    37．A    38．D
39．D    40．B    41．C    42．A
43．D    44．A    45．D    46．C
47．D    48．B    49．E    50．F    51．G

2021年江西省南昌市中考二模英语试题
55．A    56．B    57．B
58．D    59．B    60．C
61．C    62．B    63．D    64．C
65．B    66．C    67．B    68．C
69．A    70．B    71．C    72．A
73．A    74．G    75．F    76．C    77．D

2020年江西省南昌市中考二模英语试题
61～63 BCD 64～67 DACD 68～71 DDBC 72～75 CACD 76～80 DAGFE