浙江省丽水市2021-2022学年高二英语上学期期末试题（Word版附答案）

这是一份浙江省丽水市2021-2022学年高二英语上学期期末试题（Word版附答案），共13页。试卷主要包含了01等内容，欢迎下载使用。

丽水市2021学年第一学期普通高中教学质量监控
高二英语试题卷 2022.01
本试卷分第I卷（选择题）和第II卷（非选择题）。第I卷1至8页，第II卷8至10页。
第Ⅰ卷
注意事项：
1．答第I卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。
2．选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。不能答在本试卷上，否则无效。
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. When will the woman start the swimming lessons?
A. On the fourth. B. On the fifth. C. On the sixth.
2. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. A new magazine. B. A computer game. C. A good friend.
3. What did the woman think of Mrs. Jones?
A. Strict. B. Humorous. C. Knowledgeable.
4. What will the woman do next?
A. Prepare dinner. B. Do some shopping. C. Clean the cupboard.
5. Who is the man meeting at the weekend?
A. His brother. B. His uncle. C. His cousin.
第二节
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. When did the woman visit the museum?
A. On Sunday. B. On Monday. C. On Tuesday.
7. How did the woman get to the museum?
A. On foot. B. By coach. C. By bike.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8.Where can the man see a theatre?
A. Opposite a department store. B. Next to a post office. C. Beside a bank.
9. On which street is the library?
A. George Street. B. Pitt Street. C. Market Street.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题
10. Why does the woman dislike the T-shirt?
A. Because of its logo. B. Because of its size. C. Because of its color.
11. For what does the woman want to exchange the T-shirt?
A. A scarf. B. A belt. C. A hat.
12. What does the woman plan to do with the T-shirt in the end?
A. Return it to the store. B. Give it to someone else. C. Keep it as a souvenir.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题
13. How long does the story have to be?
A. About 500 words. B. About 1,000 words. C. About 1,500 words.
14. What kind of story does the woman need to write?
A. A romance story. B. A comedy. C. A horror story.
15. Where did the man get the idea for his story?
A. From a film. B. From a roommate. C. From a novel.
16. What will the speakers do in twenty minutes?
A. Cheek online sites. B. Find a magazine. C. Take a class.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题
17. Where does Amy do voluntary work?
A. In Sri Lanka. B. In Haiti. C. In Peru.
18. What does Terry help do?
A. Teach young children. B. Build new schools. C. Grow fresh vegetables.
19. What can we know about Richard?
A. He runs a bakery. B. He works as a doctor. C. He comes from Spain.
20. How many years has Richard worked with the Peace Corps?
A. For one year. B. For two years. C. For three years.
第二部分: 阅读理解（共两节, 满分35分）
第一节（共10小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分25分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
I was no slow reader, going through books like combine harvesters through crops in the English village of my childhood. But having been prevented from visiting bookstores and libraries during these days of isolation, I have decided to make changes. After all, didn’t someone once say, “It’s an ill wind that blows nobody any good.”?
I imagine slow reading to be like slow cooking: a variety of ingredients mixed into something one can truly enjoy. Slow reading means enjoying each sentence, absorbing all of those paragraphs of description that had probably been sweated over by the author and, more often than not, skipped over by readers like me.
Most recently, I had selected two books Transcription and The Innocents. In order to truly enjoy these two novels, I limited my reading to two hours a day — no more and no less. A funny thing happens when you take two hours out of the day ― every day ― for something you really, really enjoy.
Rather than reading Transcription at my usual pace, I made myself completely involved in the life of 18-year-old Juliet. The Innocents is about the life of two orphans in an isolated bay in Newfoundland, which is said to be a richly imagined and fascinating story of hardship and survival. My slow reading was rewarded with a deeper understanding of the characters and rich descriptions of northern Newfoundland ― so real that I could almost feel the lichen (地衣) between my toes. I experienced a quiet sense of achievement that I had missed for years.
So here I am, two books finished that took me a month to read. I have been entertained, enriched and transported in time and place like I never have before. Having discovered the joys of taking my time over a book now, I doubt I will ever again announce proudly, “It only took me a day or a couple of hours to finish!”
21. According to the article, the author used to ________.
A. read novels while cooking her food
B. consider herself to be a slow reader
C. finish reading a book in a day or even hours
D. spend no more than two hours reading every day
22. What does the underlined proverb in paragraph 1 probably mean?
A. Even the craziest idea can become popular.
B. Even the most popular idea can go out of fashion.
C. Even the most positive situation can harm someone.
D. Even the most negative situation can benefit someone.
23. Why did the author compare reading to cooking?
A. Because it is fun to read books related to food.
B. Because it is rewarding to pick up various types of books.
C. Because it is worthwhile to admire the brilliance of every sentence.
D. Because it is important to skip over those paragraphs of description.
24.While reading The Innocents, the author ________.
A. imagined herself to be an orphan
B. ended up with a deep appreciation of the story
C. read through the descriptive part of the book quickly
D. thought about the relationship between hardship and survival
B
That old saying “An apple a day keeps the doctor away” may hold some truth. In fact, one study found that in 2012, almost half of the deaths in America caused by heart disease, stroke, and type 2 diabetes (糖尿病) were linked to poor diet.
But knowing you should eat healthfully and actually doing it are two different things, and making the right choice isn’t any easier when a pound of grapes costs more than twice as much as a pound of pasta (意大利面食). The Fresh Food Pharmacy aims to change that. A pilot program created by the Geisinger Health System, this pharmacy is like a grocery store stocked with fresh produce, lean meats, canned beans, and more. Even better, it’s all free.
Under the program, patients with type 2 diabetes and low income are given a week’s worth of food for their entire household, and experts show them how to transform it into healthy meals. After the first year, all 180 participants had improved in key health measurements, in particular their hemogiobin A1c levels (HbA1c), the gold standard for tracking blood sugar control.
In 2012, the estimated costs associated with diabetes in the United States were $245 billion. Geisinger will spend only about $1,000 annually on each food-pharmacy patient. David Feinberg, Geisinger’s president and CEO, calculates that “a decrease in HbA1c of one point saves us about $8,000.” With many of the patients dropping three points, the program could save $24,000 (or more) a year in health-care costs.
Geisinger isn’t the only organization experimenting with produce prescriptions (药方). Nonprofits, food banks, hospitals, and even doctors’ offices around the country have begun programs that bring the “food is medicine” concept to life. Boston Medical Center’s Preventive Food Pantry was the first such program in the country when it opened in 2001. Today it serves about 7,000 patients a month.
25. According to paragraph 2, why do some Americans fail to eat healthfully？
A. Because food like grapes is comparatively expensive.
B. Because they barely know they should eat healthfully.
C. Because food like pasta is more tasty compared with other food.
D. Because they don’t realize the terrible consequences of a poor diet.

26. From the passage, we can learn that ________.
A. nearly 50% of the deaths in America are related to poor diet
B. Geisinger initially introduced the “food is medicine” concept
C. the poor people with type 2 diabetes benefit a lot from the program
D. a decrease in HbA1c of one point saves each patient about $8,000
27. Which of the following might be the best title for the text?
A. Suggestions on How to Eat Healthfully
B. Current Health Conditions Facing Americans
C. Diabetes, a Leading Killer Threatening Americans
D. A Program to Help Poor Patients with Healthy Diet
C
In April of last year, I found my “spark bird”.
Back then, COVID-19 was spreading around the U.S. I had spent an awful month shut inside a New York apartment with a high-energy 14-month-old. One Saturday morning, eager to stretch my legs, I went out to Brooklyn’s Green-Wood Cemetery. There were not many people there, so I thought it should be safe.
As I walked around the graveyard, I noticed two sounds. The first was the murmur of five men standing in a half-circle, looking through their cameras like paparazzi (狗仔队). The second was some cheerful chatter that made me follow the men’s gaze upward. And that’s how I, too, became shocked by the monk parakeets of Green-Wood Cemetery. A few light-green birds poked their heads out of holes in their nest. Others flew to and from nearby trees freely. Watching them filled me with a peace I hadn’t felt in weeks.
That evening, I found myself researching parakeets, the bird that set me on the path to birding. Birding is a great way to receive the mental benefits of observing nature. It provides a thrill of discovery that was painfully rare when our lives were disturbed by COVID-19. And there’s such a low barrier to entry ― you don’t even need to leave home to get started. So I found myself one of the birders in the Brooklyn Bird Club.
The feeling I got from my experience made me think of something one birder said about the mindfulness the hobby can provide for everyone. “I’m always a firm believer of being in the present moment, and birding is being very in tune: listening to the trees, the wind, the bird calls, and not thinking about anything else.” Birds have, among many other things, re-taught me how to look and listen.
28. The expression “spark bird” in paragraph 1 refers to a bird that ________.
A. has just been born B. arouses one’s interest in birding
C. provides people with freedom D. likes to stretch its head out of its nest
29. We can infer that the five men the author met at Green-Wood Cemetery were ________.
A. birders B. educators C. hunters D. paparazzi
30. What’s the purpose of writing this text?
A. To introduce what birding is.
B. To avoid being disturbed by COVID-19.
C. To show the benefits of joining a bird club.
D. To show the author’s experience of becoming a birder.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How would you feel if a colleague suggested you take a comedy class to improve your sense of humor. I felt stressed. 31
Yet according to Jennifer Aaker and Naomi Bagdonas, humor is not something you are born with or without. 32 What’s more, finding our funny sides makes us appear more competent and confident, strengthens relationships, unlocks creativity, and makes us more likable. It helps in any life situation. 33
I turned to Aaker and Bagdonas and they agreed to teach me how to find my funny bones. In our first call, we discuss the common misconceptions that stop many of us in our comedy tracks. The first, Aaker says, is the belief that humor has no place in certain situations, especially at work. 34 But 98% of the top executives say they prefer employees with a sense of humor and 84% of bosses believe those employees do better work.
They are so convinced of the power of humor that they also advocate its ability to help people avoid difficult situations. 35 Research shows that people who watch a funny video before trying to solve a puzzle are twice as likely to be successful and when we do make mistakes, learning to laugh at them can have a positive impact on our psychology. It takes off the pressure and if you show colleagues that you aren’t afraid to laugh at your own mistakes, they’ll feel safer owning up to theirs.
A. Rather, it can be developed gradually.
B. We worry about not being taken seriously.
C. Humor has been proved to increase creativity.
D. Some people just aren’t funny and I’m one of them.
E. This explains why people eagerly sign up for the humor course.
F. Every joke follows the fundamental structure of setup and punch line.
G. If you feel uncomfortable making the jokes, leave them to someone else.

第三部分：语言运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节：完形填空（共20小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
When I was 12, I had the opportunity to visit the United States, where my father was building a scientific submarine (潜水艇). The aerospace company he was 36 for also built the lunar module (登月舱) for the Apollo space programme and I met the astronauts who had been to 37 .
I was struck by how much of what they did was 38 controlled by computers and experts on the ground. 39 they were highly trained, they acted like human robots. I later learned that some of them finally 40 from sadness and alcoholism and this made me ask questions.
Would all 41 in future be managed by computers with nothing 42 to the human spirit? Then I began noticing the hang-glider (滑翔机) floating 43 our Swiss mountains. It was all so very simple. There was no engine, no speedometer or altitude meter. Everything 44 the instincts (本能) and reactions of the pilot ― and he or she could 45 like an eagle! When I first experienced the 46 of hang-glider, I discovered something that I had not learned at school.
47 I was invited to co-pilot a balloon in a race across the Atlantic. It seemed to be 48 to hang-gliding — no wind in your face, 49 seeking out the wind currents and accepting to go at their 50 . We won the race.
Next time came the challenge of 51 to balloon around the world. Our first flight in Breitling Orbiter took five years to prepare and ended early and unexpectedly in the Mediterranean 52 we discovered a leak. We accepted it as a(n) 53 , made improvements and lifted off for a second time in January 1998 for what 54 to be (and still is) the longest manned balloon flight 55 made.
Why can’t we live our lives as an adventure?
36. A. seeking B. longing C. working D. waiting
37. A. the moon B. the earth C. Mars D. the planet
38. A. exceptionally B. ideally C. particularly D. actually
39. A. Unless B. Although C. Since D. Once
40. A. suffered B. affected C. benefited D. obtained
41. A. prediction B. routine C. analysis D. adventure
42. A. exposed B. devoted C. left D. encountered
43. A. beyond B. across C. over D. through
44. A. kept on B. depended on C. worked on D. called on
45. A. fly B. flee C. move D. shift
46. A. shame B. passion C. embarrassment D. excitement
47. A. Gradually B. Apparently C. Later D. Nowadays
48. A. similar B. opposite C. unique D. essential
49. A. or rather B. would rather C. but rather D. had rather
50. A. speed B. cost C. height D. zone
51. A. leading B. subscribing C. appealing D. attempting
52. A. before B. after C. while D. until
53. A. stop B. challenge C. break D. end
54. A. turned out B. turned down C. turned up D. turned away
55. A. never B. even C. yet D. ever

第Ⅱ卷
注意：将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
第三部分：语言运用（共两节，满分45分）
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容 (1个单词) 或括号内单词的正确形式。
Qatar’s Mutaz Barshim and Italy’s Gianmarco Tamberi made the world weep when they shared their win at the Men’s High Jump, which was one of the most defining 56 (moment) at this year’s Tokyo Olympics.
After 57 (match) performances that led the pair to a tie, instead 58 choosing a jump-off (加赛决胜负) as would usually be custom, Barshim asked the judge 59 it was possible to share the gold medal. The judge agreed.
In 60 (emotion) and joyful scenes that followed, the two embraced in a jump hug ― a scene 61 has been called the “best moment of Tokyo 2020” on social media.
Speaking to the media, Barshim said, “I know for a fact that for the performance I did, I deserve that gold. He 62 (do) the same thing, so I know he deserved that gold.” He added, “This is beyond sport. This is the message we deliver to 63 young generation.” Meanwhile, Tamberi said, “Sharing with a friend was even more beautiful; it was just magical.”
Barshim later took to Twitter, where alongside posting a photo with him and Tamberi, he said, “What is 64 (good) than one gold? TWO!!” A win shared is 65 (clear) a win made much sweeter.
第四部分：写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节：应用文写作（满分15分）
假定你是李华，将参加学校举行的以“The Person I am Especially Moved by”为主题的英文演讲比赛。请你写一篇演讲稿，内容包括：
1. 人物介绍；
2. 感动原因；
3. 对你的影响。
注意：1. 词数80左右；
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
第二节：读后续写（满分25分）
阅读下面短文，根据所给情节进行续写，使之构成一个完整的故事。
Claudia’s mom first saw the advertisement in a newspaper. The advertisement told of an AmeriCorps-sponsored workshop to train 100 teenagers in leadership skills and community service. Claudia sent in her application and was one of the teenagers chosen to go to Fort Devens, Massachusetts, in the summer when she was 16.
During the leadership training, Claudia worked with a team of 10 kids. Together they surveyed, planned, and set up a meeting for minority business owners to find out how crime and safety affected them. After surveying more than 150 people, Claudia and her friends provided information to businesses about alarm systems and other safety measures.
At the end of her AmeriCorps training, Claudia was one of only two teens chosen to attend a Sumner of Safety National Forum. She received more training there and returned home with enthusiasm.
That’s when her mom told her about a problem at the day-care center where she worked. All day long, kids from a nearby housing project would press their noses against the windows of the center, knocking and begging to use the playground. But the playground was always locked, and only children whose parents paid for day care were allowed to use it.
“That’s when it hit me,” Claudia remembers. “I had really developed my leadership skills and a desire to serve by helping those small businesses. So I went to a teacher at Framingham High School and made a proposal for an after-school program for those children living in the low-income housing project.” Claudia received lots of support from about 20 other teens in a service club at the high school.
The project wasn’t easy. First, Claudia struggled to find a place to house the program. The Framingham Housing Authority finally agreed to donate a facility next door to the day-care center. Claudia immediately organized her friends to collect donations of crayons, paper, scissors, and supplies from teachers and day-care centers. Then she made a flyer (传单) and distributed it around the housing project.
注意：
1. 所续写短文的词数应为150左右；
2. 应使用5个以上短文中标有下划线的关键词语；
3. 续写部分分为两段，每段的开头语已为你写好；
4. 续写完成后，请用下划线标出你所使用的关键词语。
Paragraph 1:
Only a few kids showed up on the first day. ______________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2:
When Claudia graduated from high school, another girl from the service club took over the program, and it’s still running. ____________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________
丽水市2021学年第一学期普通高中教学质量监控
高二英语参考答案 2022.01
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
1-5 CBCAC 6-10 BBABA 11-15 BBACA 16-20 CACAB
第二部分: 阅读理解（共两节, 满分35分）
第一节（共10小题; 每小题2.5分, 满分25分）
21-24 CDCB 25-27 ACD 28-30 BAD
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
31-35 DAEBC
第三部分：语言运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节：完形填空（共20小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分30分）
36-40 CADBA 41-45 DCCBA 46-50 DCBCA 51-55 DBBAD
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. moments
57. matching
58. of
59. whether/if
60. emotional
61. that/which
62. did
63. the
64. better
65. clearly
第四部分：写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节：应用文写作（满分15分）
One possible version:
Dear fellow students,
It’s my privilege to deliver a speech here. Of all the most respectable people, I am especially moved by Zhong Nanshan.
This 85-year-old man with gray hair works really hard, for the people, for the motherland, for his responsibility. He is one of Chinese heroes volunteering many times to fight against pandemics. The picture of him resting on the high-speed rail seat made us touched and tearful. Such great contribution did he make that he was awarded the Medal of the Republic. His deeds and spirit do make a great difference to me.
Thank you.
内容要点：
1. 人物介绍； 2. 感动原因； 3. 对你的影响。
应用文评分原则:
1. 上文仅为参考范文，学生可用不同的语言表达形式来表述要点。
2. 本题总分为15 分，按以下5个档次给分。评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
第一档：（1—3 分）只能写出一两个要点；语言错误很多，只有个别句子正确；
第二档：（4—6 分）能写出部分要点；语言错误多，影响意思表达；
第三档：（7—9 分）能写明基本要点；语言虽有较多错误，但能基本达意；
第四档：（10—12 分）能写明全部或绝大部分要点；语言有少量错误；行文不够连贯，表达基本清楚；
第五档：（13—15 分）能写明全部要点；语言基本无误；行文连贯，表达清楚。
3. 词数少于60 和多于100 的，从总分中减去2 分;格式不正确的，从总分中减去1分。
4. 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：时态、人称、内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6. 如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。

第二节：读后续写（满分25分）
Only a few kids showed up on the first day. However, by the end of the year, 30 or more children attended the program each Monday night for one hour. Claudia oversaw all the activities, which included arts, board games, and tutoring for the kids. Claudia met a nine-year-old child who never hugged people back. One day, Claudia wrote him a get-well letter because he had been sick for two weeks. When he returned, he handed Claudia a cake with a rose on top, which almost made Claudia cry.
When Claudia graduated from high school, another girl from the service club took over the program, and it’s still running. “Everything is a cycle,” Claudia says. “The adults in the training program cared for me and had hopes for me as a teenager. They believed I could do something. I tried to carry this to my community. I helped the kids. When these children grow up, they will have a sense of caring for others, because they have been cared for. I hope they will pass it on.”
续写评分原则:
1．上文仅为参考范文，学生可用不同的语言表达形式来表述要点。
2．本题总分为25 分，按以下5 个档次给分。评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
第一档：（1—5 分） 与段落开头衔接较差，产出内容太少，很少使用短文中标出的关键词语，全文内容不连贯；
第二档：（6—10 分）与所给短文有一定的关系，与段落开头有一定程度的衔接，写出了一些有关内容，应用了3个以上短文中标出的关键词语，较少使用语句间连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性；
第三档：（11—15 分）与所给短文关系较为密切，与段落开头有一定程度的衔接，写出了若干有关内容，应用了4个以上短文中标出的关键词语，应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯；
第四档：（16—20 分）与所给短文融洽度较高，与段落开头衔接较为合理，内容比较丰富，应用了5个以上短文中标出的关键词语，比较有效地使用了语句间连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑；
第五档：（21—25 分）与所给短文融洽度高，与段落开头衔接合理，内容丰富，应用了5个以上短文中标出的关键词语，有效地使用了语句间连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
3．词数少于130的，从总分中减去2分。
4．评分时，应注意的主要内容为：与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；内容的丰富性和对所标出关键词语的应用情况；应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；上下文的连贯性。
5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6．如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
7．如果文章中所用关键词没有下划线，从总分中扣除2分。
高二英语试题听力材料
(Text 1)
M: The swimming pool is closed for cleaning and will be open to the public on the sixth. The cleaning actually finishes on the fourth, but the changing rooms will be ready on the fifth.
W: I’m pleased to say our lessons can start that day.
(Text 2)
M: Have you heard about that new computer game Space Giants?
W:Yeah, I read about it in a gaming magazine. My best friend’s just got the game and I’m going round to him to try it.
(Text 3)
M: What did you think of your new science teacher?
W: Good. Our usual teacher always shows us cool experiments. Mrs. Jones had a different style. I was impressed by her knowledge.
(Text 4)
M: Mom, what’s for supper?
W: Well, I just got back from the mall. Let’s see what we have in the cupboard. There’re eggs and flour, oil, and six tomatoes. I’ll make pasta with tomato sauce.
(Text 5)
M: I’m meeting Danny this weekend. You met him once when my uncle had that big party. Remember?
W: Well, I remember the party. We went with your brother! But I can’t remember meeting anyone called Danny.
M: I’m sure you did — he’s my uncle’s son!
(Text 6)
M: Hi, Maria. I haven’t seen you since Tom’s party on Sunday.
W: It’s only Tuesday today! I went on a school trip to the Science Museum yesterday.
M: I didn’t know it was open on Monday! I’ve already been there a few times and it’s not far from my house. How did you get there? It’s a bit far to walk from school, isn’t it?
W: We went by coach.
M: Lucky you! We usually cycle there — it’s good exercise.
(Text 7)
W: Excuse me, can you tell me how to get to the library?
M: OK. I’ve got a map. You’re here now. So you walk along George Street, go past the Victoria Building on your left and turn right into Market Street. There’s a bank on the corner. Then turn right and walk past an old theatre on your right. That’s opposite a department store.
W: OK. Past the theatre and...
M: You need to turn left into Pitt Street. Walk along Pitt Street until you come to Martin Place. The post office building is on your left. The library is just on your right.
(Text 8)
W: I’d like to return this black T-shirt and get my money back, please.
M: May I ask what the problem with the T-shirt is?
W: Well. I don’t know about the size. I haven’t tried it on. I just don’t like it — look, it’s got the name of the shop right across it. It was a present. My brother bought it for me. I don’t like this kind of thing, logos on T-shirts and all that.
M: Sorry. We only give money back if there’s something wrong with the clothes. Or you can exchange it for something else, such as a scarf or a hat.
W: Hold on though — these belts are OK. I’ll exchange the T-shirt for one.
M: OK, but you’ll have to add eleven pounds fifty.
W: Oh, no.
M: Maybe you could give the T-shirt to someone else.
W: Good idea. My friend Jenny’s the same size as me, and it’s her birthday next month!
(Text 9)
W: I couldn’t do the English homework last night. I don’t know how you did it. I could never get an idea.
M: I just thought of something that happened to me. And after all, it’ s only a short story — we’re not talking about 10,000 or 5,000 words, are we? The teacher only asked us to write about 500 words.
W: I know. But he said it had to be a kind of horror story. I mean, a romance, maybe. Or even a comedy or something. But who can think of a horror story?
M: Well, me. I thought of one.
W: Did you think of something that happened to you like you said just now?
M: No, not exactly. I saw a film with my roommate last weekend. In the film, some kids find an empty house and one of them decides to go in at night. I just took that idea. I’d really like to write a novel one day, so if the teacher likes my story, I’ll send it to one of those online sites.
W: Or you could put it in the school magazine. But first of all, give me an idea for a story that I can write. Come on — we’ve still got twenty minutes before the English lesson starts!
(Text 10)
In today’s program, we’ll look at the life choices of some young Peace Corps volunteers. There are more than 9,000 Peace Corps volunteers in seventy-five different countries round the world. Here are the stories of three volunteers in different countries. The first one, Amy, is in Sri Lanka. She works with local teachers and teaches young children in the village. The lessons are given in a very old school, but they are building a new school! They work on the building in the afternoons and on Saturdays. It’s hard work but she enjoys it. Our next volunteer is Terry. He works in Haiti. He is working on a gardening project. His team runs a vegetable garden next to the local hospital so they can grow fresh vegetables for the patients. He thinks it’s great to work outside. Finally, here is Richard, who works in Peru. He works with street children. He tries to help them. They run a bakery together. The kids learn practical skills. They make some money and they always have something to eat. The kids sometimes teach him real street Spanish! Two years with the Peace Corps is a good life choice for him.