2022临沂罗庄区高二下学期5月期中考试英语试题（民办）含答案

这是一份2022临沂罗庄区高二下学期5月期中考试英语试题（民办）含答案，共13页。试卷主要包含了05等内容，欢迎下载使用。

 高二年级下学期期中质量检测（B卷）
英 语 试 题 2022.05
本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分。考试用时120分钟。
注意事项：
1.答卷前, 考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时, 选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂
黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后, 再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时, 将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
第一部分 听力 （共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节 （共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the woman drinking?
A. Coffee with sugar. B. Coffee with cream. C. Coffee with milk.
2. How does Ray feel?
A. Disappointed. B. Satisfied. C. Excited.
3. What’s the relationship between the speakers?
A. Dentist and patient. B. Classmates. C. Teacher and student.
4. What is the woman looking for?
A. Drinks. B. Vegetables. C. Potato chips.
5. Why is Lucy having Friday off from school?
A. Because of the school trip.
B. Because of the building repairs.
C. Because of her father's birthday.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
请听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题
6. What are the speakers celebrating?
A. Independence Day. B. Christmas Day. C. New Year’s Day.
7. Where does the conversation take place?
A. On the street. B. In a living room. C. In a restaurant.
听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。
8. Where is the house located?
A. Near the city. B. In the town center. C. In the countryside
9. Which activity does the man like?
A. Spending time in the city. B. Driving on the highway. C. Going outdoors.
10.  What does the house have?
A. A small backyard. B. An old kitchen. C. Three bedrooms.
听第8段材料,回答第11至13题
11. How long does the course last?
A. 7 weeks. B. 9 weeks. C. 10 weeks.
12. How much should the woman pay if she signs up for it now?
A. 550 dollars. B. 600 dollars. C. 650 dollars.
13. What will the woman bring to the first class?
A. The money. B. Her personal record. C. The application form.
听第9段材料,回答第14至17题
14. What will the woman do?
A. Do the shopping. B. Clean the house. C. Go to the airport.
15. Who is coming to the speakers’ house over the holiday?
A. Their parents. B. Their grandparents. C. Their aunt and uncle.
16. What do the speakers have enough?
A. Eggs. B. Cereal (谷类食品). C. Milk.
17. What does the man remind the woman to do in the end?
A. Pick up dessert. B. Buy some vegetables. C. Get some meat.
听第10段材料,回答第18至20题。
18. Who is the game mostly designed for?
A. People who like to solve puzzles.
B. People who like games with luck.
C. People who like to play against each other.
19. How many people can play the game?
A. Four or less. B. Four to eight. C. Over twenty.
20. What is unique about the game?
A. You can play it for free.
B. You can only play it once.
C. You will never know the answers.
第二部分 阅读　(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Sand Safari Arts Festival 2020
Date: 14 February — 1 March, 2020
Price: Free
Address: Surfers Paradise, Gold Coast
Once upon a time, in the magical Surfers Paradise, 15 world-famous artists turned a famous beach into a wonderful place of large sculptures (雕塑). Running over 17 days from mid-February to early March, the Sand Safari Arts Festival (SSAF) now brings together art installations (现代雕塑装置), larger than life art pieces and sand sculptures.
In 2020, the main subject of the festival fairy-tale (童话) classics. Visitors can watch the sculptures take form between Friday, 14 February and Sunday, 16 February, with the SSAF Award presentation to take place at 5: 30 pm on 16 February. For the rest of the festival, the public can vote on the People’s Choice Award by making a gold coin donation, with the winner to be announced publicly on Saturday, 29 February.
The festival will provide a host of public art and entertainment in addition to the sand sculptures. American artists Joseph Burgess and Joshua Wilkinson will present “The Harps (竖琴) of the City”, eight giant harps hand-carved from wood, each with a different sound, while local artists Clayton Blake and Courtenay McCue will take over the beach with their sculptures inspired by sea animals.
During the festival people can go to the Artist Plaza. a centre where all kinds of artworks are shown and visitors can buy their favorite art pieces, and The Castle of Ever After, which offers readings, live music, games, and a chance for people to get their hands dirty and create their own sand art
The festival will take place at Surfers Paradise beach and along Cavill Mall. After the festival, why not go to enjoy delicious food, check out the markets, play a round of mini golf or explore the unknown?
21. Which of the following can enter the competition held by the festival?
A. Artworks on nature. B. “The Harps of the City”.
C. Clayton Blake’s wooden sculptures. D. Sand sculptures of fairy-tale characters.
22. When will the best sculpture chosen by visitors be made public?
A. On 29 February. B. On 1 March.
C. On 14 February. D. On 16 February.
23. What can visitors do in the Artist plaza?
A. Meet famous artists. B. Buy some artworks.
C. Make sand sculptures. D. Enjoy public concerts.

B.
When you were a kid, did you ever draw pictures in the dirt with sticks?  There is a man named Stan Herd who is very skilled at playing in dirt!
Stan Herd was born into a family of farmers in 1950 and grew up in a very small town in Southwest Kansas. He was a talented painter. When he started doing murals (壁画）he realized he enjoyed doing a huge works of art. Then, while flying over a field once, he got the idea of using the earth as his canvas (画布). In 1976, he returned to farming roots and invented a new form of artwork called “crop art” or “Earthworks”. Herd is the first known American to use the earth as canvas.
To create these giant designs, Herd usually starts by making an outline (轮廓) with bricks. After that, he begins filling in the area with materials. These can range from different colors of dirt, sand, and rocks to different types of plants and flowers. Herd often uses local volunteers to help with his projects because his projects are too big for just one person. While he is creating his pieces, he sometimes looks at them by going up in a hot air balloon, but usually he just creates his work based on his previous experience.
Herd’s personal artwork frequently focuses on the theme（主题）of farm life. Herd comes from a family of farmers. His art aims to show respect for their hard work. He has also devoted his time to creating an earthen medicine wheel at Haskell Indian Nations University--a big project that is very proud of. Through years of practice, he created his own art form by combining his farm upbringing（教养）with his love of art.
24. When did Herd think of using crop fields as his canvas?
A. He was working in a field. B. He was creating a large mural.
C. He was drawing pictures in the dirt. D. He was flying over a field by plane.
25. What is paragraph 3 mainly about?
A. How Herd creates his works.
B. How Herd helps local volunteers.
C. How Herd gets the ideas for his designs.
D. How Herd has a bird’s-eye view of his works.
26. Why did Herd use farm life as the theme of his works?
A. He chose it by chance.
B. He had deep feelings about it.
C. He thought it would make him popular.
D. He was influenced by local painting traditions.
27. According to the last paragraph, which of the following can best describe Herd?
A. Popular but serious. B. Friendly and honest.
C. Talented and hard-working. D. Talented but narrow-minded.

C
Even in the fanciest pizza restaurant, you will never feel weird if you ask for a box to take your leftovers (剩饭）home. In Italy, that will soon apply everywhere, with a new law that encourages restaurants to give people doggy bags, although in Italy it's called a "family bag."
The new law is designed to reduce food waste and open doors to companies wishing to donate wasted food. Family bags were made to avoid embarrassment at asking for leftovers, turning it from begging into good behavior.
In the U.S., taking uneaten food home is normal. In the U.K. it is fairly common. To the south, though, this practice is rare. In Spain and Italy, people might take the bones from their meat and give them to their dogs, but culturally, it's not the done thing. Also, there aren't often many leftovers, as dishes are sized according to how much people will actually eat and are rarely too big to finish unless you over-order.
In France, the laws are tougher. Last year, the French began to forbid supermarkets to throw away food. They must either give it away to charity, or make it available to be used as animal feed and compost (堆肥)，If they fail to follow the law, they will be fined.
Perhaps Italy's new law is right. Food waste is now attracting international attention, but the only way to really stop it lies in whether individuals are willing to change their ways. If it becomes socially unacceptable to waste food, or to serve a huge portion in restaurants, then we have a chance.
28. What does the underlined word “weird” in paragraph 1 probably mean?
A. Difficult. B. Relaxed. C. Strange D. Disappointed.
29. Why do the Spanish seldom take leftovers home from restaurants?
A. They don’t bother to do it. B. It is their custom to eat food up.
C. It is not acceptable in their culture. D. They usually order small portions.
30. According to the author, how can we reduce food waste?
A. By introducing stricter laws.
B. By donating food to the needy.
C. By restaurants only serving small portions.
D. By everyone taking action and saying no to it.
31. What’s the passage mainly about?
A. Way of reducing food waste. B. Italy’s plans to use family bags.
C. How doggy bags come into being. D. The increasingly serious food waste.

D
Reading poems is not exactly an everyday activity for most people. In fact, many people never read a poem once they get out of high school.
It is worth reminding ourselves that this has not always been the case. In the nineteenth century, a usual activity was to sit around the fireside in the evening and read poems aloud. It is true that there was no television at the time, nor movie theaters, nor World Wide Web, to provide amusements. However, poems were a source of pleasure, of self-education, of connection to other people or to the world beyond one's own community. Reading them was a social act as well as an individual one, and perhaps even more social than individual. Writing poems to share with friends and relations was, like reading poems by the fireside, another way in which poetry has a place in everyday life.
How did things change? Why are most people no longer comfortable with poetry, and why do most people today think that a poem has nothing to tell them and that they can do well without poems? There are, I believe, three factors: poets, teachers, and we ourselves. Of these, the least important is the third: the world surrounding the poem has betrayed (背弃) us more than we have betrayed the poem. Early in the twentieth century, poetry in English headed into directions unfavorable to the reading of poetry. Readers think poems shouldn’t be placed by the fireplace or in the easy chair at night. They should be placed where other difficult things are.
Poets failed the reader, so did teachers. They want their students to know something about the skills of a poem. They want their students to see that poems mean something. However, when teachers push these questions on their high school students, what usually happens is that young people think of poetry as unpleasant crossword puzzles（填字游戏）.
32. Why was reading poems thought to be a social act in the nineteenth century?
A. It built a link among people. B. It helped unite a community.
C. It was a source of self-education. D. It was a source of pleasure.
33. What is the main cause of the great gap between readers and poetry in the passage?
A. Poems have become difficult to understand.
B. Students are becoming less interested in poetry.
C. TV and the Internet are more attractive than poetry.
D. Teachers don’t teach students the skills of a poem in high school.
34. What does the writer question in the last paragraph?
A. the difficulty in studying poems B. the way poems are taught in school
C. students' wrong ideas about poetry D. the techniques used in writing poem
35. Where can the text be found?
A. A history book. B. A novel. C. A literature magazine. D. A travel guide.
第二节（共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项.选项中有两项多余。
Diets aren't the way to go when it comes to losing weight. That's because they create temporary (暂时性的) eating habits — and, therefore, temporary results. Most dieters gain back any lost weight when they go back to their old eating habits. 36 The following 5 ones may make that happen.
Exercise. Regular physical activity burns calories and builds muscle. 37 The more muscle you have, the more calories you burn, even when you aren't exercising.
Reduce screen time. One reason people get less exercise these days is because of an increase in "screen time". Limit screen time to less than 2 hours per day.
Watch out for portion distortion (暴食). Portion sizes are bigger than they used to be. So these extra calories contribute to obesity. Another key factor in weight gain is that more people drink sugary drinks, such as sodas, juice drinks, and sports drinks. 38
39 Fruits and vegetables are about more than just vitamins and minerals. They're also packed with fiber, which means they fill you up. And when you fill up on fruits and vegetables, you're less likely to overeat.
Don't skip breakfast. People skipping breakfast often feel so hungry that they eat more later on. 40
Weight loss is most likely to be successful when people change their habits, replacing old, unhealthy ones with new, healthy behaviors. 

A. So what are the best ways to drop weight?
B. Eat several servings of fruits and vegetables a day.
C. As we know, vitamins play a key role in our health.
D. However, some people are too busy to spend time exercising.
E. Cycling to school is a good choice because it can help you make it.
F. As a result, they tend to gain more weight than those who eat breakfast.
G. So choose smaller portions and go for water or low-fat milk instead of soda.

第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A child wrote a letter about smartphones. After reading it, his parents held back tears.
The use of smartphones had such a(n) 41 on our society. While there are so many
42 to have a smartphone, there are many arguments against having one too. And a child
43 his complaint (抱怨) in a very moving letter.
The child’s mom just so 44 to be his teacher and she gave her students a 45 to write a paper on what they would like to be in this modern world. She was 46 the homework and writing down their grades. Then 47 she came to a stop.
She could not 48 what she was reading. Her husband asked her what was wrong. And she told him. A child wrote he would like to be a 49 , but for reasons that were so heartbreaking. He felt that his parents 50 their smartphones so much and that they paid more attention to their smartphones than they did to him. He 51 that as soon as his dad came home from work. he went straight to his phone 52 paying attention to him. She was already in tears, but her husband was even more 53 when she told him that it was their son who wrote it.
Stories like this always remind me to be more 54 about the time and attention I give to my smartphone. I think I will start 55 my phone when I am spending time with those I treasure.
41. A. function B. influence C. choice D. failure
42. A. reasons B. rules C. doubts D. methods
43. A. received B. imagined C. approached D. expressed
44. A. planned B. happened C. directed D. managed
45. A. task B. brochure C. competition D. inspiration
46. A. preparing B. considering C. grading D. outputting
47. A. curiously B. naturally C. particularly D. suddenly
48. A. realize B. understand C. believe D. remember
49. A. phone B. dancer C. computer D. teacher
50. A. missed B. praised C. loved D. feared
51. A. wondered B. shouted C. suggested D. explained
52. A. instead of B. because of C. except for D. as for
53. A. amused B. astonished C. disturbed D. pleased
54. A. content B. respectful C. careful D. subjective
55. A. picking out B. putting away C. referring to D. focusing on

第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In 2013, a lot of people were shocked by a news photo of a dead polar bear. An expert, 56 has studied polar bears for many years said that from the position of its dead body, the bear appeared to have 57 (starve) and died. Experts claimed that low sea-ice levels caused by climate change meant the bear could not hunt seals as before, so it had to travel greater distances in order 58 (find) food. This alarming case showed how the increase in temperature had 59 impact on Earth’s ecology.
Then what is causing the increase 60 the global average surface temperature? Climate scientists often mention a key climate process called the “greenhouse effect”.
There is strong and 61 (comprehension) evidence that the rise in temperature has led to an increase in extreme weather and natural 62 (disaster) worldwide, not only causing serious damage, but also 63 (cost) human lives. Climate scientists have warned that if we do not take appropriate actions, there will be a 64 (high) price to pay. In fact, news reports are 65 (frequent) broadcast about extreme rainstorms and heat waves causing deaths and economic losses.

第四部分　写作（共两节, 满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
假定你是校英语报记者，下周你校将举办迎新年校园艺术节，请你写一篇宣传稿。内容包括：
1.活动目的；2.活动内容；3.呼吁参加。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
A New Year Campus Art Festival



第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Mary’s family was very poor; her mom worked as a cashier at a store and her dad worked as a guardian. However, Mary was studying at a famous private school that cost $15,000 each year. Even so, she didn’t really bring too much economic burden to her family. Being good at all her subjects, Mary could study there on a scholarship and she had no trouble paying almost all necessities.
At school, Mary always tried to pretend to be a girl from a rich family, because she’s afraid that others would be unwilling to make friends with her if they knew her family background. Everyone at the school had nice clothes and shoes, so it became harder and harder for Mary to keep up.
Mary’s friend Patricia had been planning a big party for her 16th birthday for two weeks, which was going to be held in the ballroom of a hotel. Mary had also been invited to the party. She wanted to wear a beautiful dress to the party, but she knew she could not afford it.
“Mary, what are you going to wear?” her friend Linda asked her. “I think I'll wear the dress I wore at your birthday party last year,” Mary said in a low voice. Linda said, “You’re kidding me, right?” “Yeah, I am! You guessed it!” Mary said. For fear of being laughed at, she had to lie, and in order to cover up her lie, she had to get a new dress.
Everyone would be wearing expensive and beautiful clothes, but Mary could only spent ＄30 on a dress. What could she do to get a new dress for the party? Mary was considering doing one more part-time job, but she had done three part-time jobs and couldn’t spare time for a new one.

注意：
1. 续写词数应为150左右；
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

After school, Mary went to the shopping mall, expecting to find something cheap but nice.


On the second day, Mary received a parcel with no sender’s name on it.



高二年级下学期期中检测（B卷）
英语参考答案 2022.05
第一部分 听力（每小题1.5分，满分30分）
1-5 CABCB 6-10 CACAC 11-15 CABAB 16-20 BCAAB
第二部分 阅读（每小题2.5分，满分50分）
21-23 DAB 24-27 DABC 28-31CCDB 32-35AABC 36-40 AEGBF
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41～45 BADBA 46～50 CDCAC 51～55 DABCB
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. who 57. starved 58. to find 59. an 60. in
61. comprehensive 62. disasters 63. costing 64. higher 65. frequently
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分） One possible version:
A New Year Campus Art Festival
Aimed to rise students’ awareness of promoting traditional Chinese culture, a New Year Campus Art Festival is to be held next week.
During the festival, our headmaster is planning to deliver a presentation about the history of the New Year Festival, which will enrich our knowledge of Chinese traditions. After that, students are expected to appreciate in an exhibition showing people’s love to the New Year Festival. What may attract us most is that there will be a great show given by our students at the end of the festival.
I’m firmly convinced that you’ll benefit a lot from the festival and enjoy yourself. Just participate in it!
应用文写作评分标准
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为15分，按以下5个档次给分。
2．评分时，应主要从内容组织、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于60或多于100的，从总分中减去2分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写和词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以至影响交际的，将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档：（13-15分）能写明全部要点；语言基本无误；行文连贯，表达清楚；
第四档：（10-12分）能写明全部或绝大部分要点；语言有少量错误；行文不够连贯，表达基本清楚；
第三档：（7-9分）能写明基本要点；语言虽有较多错误，但基本达意；
第二档：（4-6分）能写出部分要点；语言错误多，影响意思表达；
第一档：（1-3分）只能写出一两个要点；语言错误很多，只有个别句子正确。
第二节（满分25分）One possible version:
After school, Mary went to the shopping mall, expecting to find something cheap but nice. With great expectation in her heart, she visited those cloth shops one by one. Witnessing those beautiful and appealing dresses, her eyes shone brightly. However, when she was told the price, her heart fell down. Not knowing what to do, she burst into tears at a corner. “What’s the matter? My dear.” An old woman patted Mary’s shoulder and asked gently. After knowing what had happened, the lady smiled and whispered to Mary: “Honey, don’t cry any more. Tomorrow will be a nice day.”
On the second day, Mary received a parcel with no sender’s name on it. The instant Mary received it, she couldn’t wait to open it. In the box lay a fantastic dress with a note sticking on it, which was completely beyond her wild imagination. Excited and cautious, Mary pick up the note which read: “A magical gift for you. Please just dress up and enjoy yourself.” So amazed was Mary that her lips trembled and tears welled up. Mary would never know who the kind stranger was, but the gift would be a sweet secret kept in her heart, warming her forever.
读后续写评分标准
一、评分原则
1．本题总分为25分，按七个档次给分。
2．评分时，应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）续写内容的质量、完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
（2）所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
（1）词数少于120的，酌情扣分；
（2）书写较差，以至影响交际的，酌情扣分。
（3）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写和词汇用法均可接受。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档（21-25分）
（1）创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高；
（2）使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，有个别小错，但完全不影响理解；
（3）有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯；
第四档（16-20分）
（1）创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度较高；
（2）使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，错误较少，但不影响理解；
（3）比较有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯；
第三档（11-15分）
（1）创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境有关联；
（2）使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误和不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解；
（3）基本有效的使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档（6-10分）
（1）内容和逻辑有一些重大问题，续写不完整，与原文情境有一定程度的脱节；
（2）所用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解；
（3）未能有效的使用语句间的衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯；
第一档（1-5分）
（1）内容或逻辑有较多重大问题，或部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节；
（2）所使用的词汇有限，语法结构简单，错误较多，严重影响理解；
（3）几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意义不连贯；
零分：
未做答，所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判；所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求
完全不相关。
附：听力原文材料
Text I
M: What do you like in your coffee, Megan? I drink mine black, but I have milk, cream, and sugar if you want some.
W: I only put milk in my coffee, (1) and I am trying to eat less sugar recently.
Text 2
M: I thought I would get a better grade in math, Mom. I'm so disappointed in myself.
W: Don't be silly. Ray.(2) I know how hard you study. You did everything you could, and that's good enough for me
Text 3
M: What did Mrs. Jones teach in science class today? I came to school late because I had a dentist appointment. Did she give us any notes?
W: Yes, and we took a quiz. You can see my notes if you need them. (3)
Text 4
W: Hello, where can I find your potato chips?(4)
M: That would be in Row 4, right across from the drinks and wines
W: Thanks for your help.
Text 5
W: Hey, Dad, we're having an extra day off from school this Friday.
M: Is there going to be a school trip on that day, Lucy?
W: No. Some pipes in our buildings need to be fixed, and the workers need three days. (5)
Text 6
W: Chris! Chris, over here!
M: Amanda! I can't believe we found each other in a crowd of a million people!(7)
W: That’s so crazy! Did you have a good Christmas?
M: Yeah, it was great! My family came to visit, but they left already!
W: The New Year is crazier than Independence Day (6)
M: Yes. Better than watching it in your living room! Did you get here early?
W: Yeah. I had dinner at a restaurant near here
M: Hey, look! The countdown(倒计时) is beginning!(6)
W:10!9!8.!
Text 7
W: What do you think of this house? It's outside of the city. (8) But it's very nice.
M: You're right. It is nice. It's large with a sunny living room and a big backyard. The kids would love that. But you know I prefer city life to being outdoors. (9)This place is pretty far into the countryside.(8) We'll spend a lot of gas driving on the highway to get into town.
W: That is the main disadvantage of this place- being far from work, school, and shops. But it has three bedrooms and a new kitchen, (10) and the rent is very fair - much less than we would pay in the city.
M: That's true. I'll think about it!
Text 8
M: Can I help you, madam?
W: Do you offer a course on business management?
M: Yes, we do
W: And how long does the course last? (11)
M: It lasts 10 weeks. (11) Three times a week- Monday, Tuesday and Thursday
W: When does it start?
M: The next class starts on October 25th. It's from 7 to 9 o'clock in the evening.
W: How much does it cost?
M: It costs 600 dollars. But you can save 50 dollars if you sign up for it now. (12)
W: Okay, great. I'd like to sign up, please.
M: Thank you. Please fill out this form for us now. And we also need a record of your education and work experiences.(13)
W: Well, can I bring it with me to the first class?(13)
M: Sure.(13) See you then.
Text 9
M: Helen, we need to pick up some groceries. Mom and dad will be back from their vacation today. They left us some money on the table.
W: I'm just doing my homework. Can you go instead?
M: I still need to clean the house, and clear the road in front of the house. If you do the shopping, I'll pick up mom and dad later from the airport. (14)
W: OK.(14)Do you have a list?
M: Here, Chicken, pork, and fish. Bread, rice, spaghetti.. Vegetables and fruit.. What am I forgetting?
W: Breakfast stuff? Remember, grandma and grandpa will be staying with us for a week.(15)
M: Oh, yeah. Well, we have some eggs and milk, but not enough. We have plenty of cereal.(16)
W: Should I pick up a turkey for Christmas?
M: No, we're going to Auntie May and Uncle Bob's for Christmas dinner. Oh, that reminds me to get the meat from the Joe's on your way home. (17) It's cheaper and tastes better.
W: Sure. There's a bakery right there, too. I'll pick up some desserts.
M: Perfect.
Text 10
Some of you may have heard of "Escape Rooms" found in big cities all over the world. The idea is simple: Players are locked in a room, and then solve a series of riddles to escape. (18)Now, the idea has been packaged into EXIT: The Game. It's not a competitive game, but a game where you work together. There is almost no luck involved, which is what some people like about it. However, if you're looking for a party game for up to eight people, this isn't for you. Instead, this is for groups under four people.(19) In the instruction book, you will read a short story of how you and your team got locked in a room. Besides that, all you have is pictures, symbols and some cards which give you hints. Solve the riddles, escape the room, and win the game. Unfortunately, this game can only be played once, (20) since you will know all the answers when you finish. But for $20, and several different stories to choose from, it's a good way to test your problem solving skills.