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    译林版英语七年级下册期末英语检测卷

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    译林版英语七年级下册期末英语检测卷

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    这是一份译林版英语七年级下册期末英语检测卷,共10页。
    注意事项:
    1.本次考试时间为100分钟,卷面总分为120分。考试形式为闭卷。
    2.本试卷中所有试题必须作答在答题纸上规定的位置,否则不给分。
    3.答题前,务必将学校、班级、姓名和准考证号填写在答题纸上相应位置。
    听力部分(共20分)
    听力部分(共20小题,每小题1分, 计20分)
    第一部分: 听对话回答问题。本部分共有10道小题,每小题你将听到一段对话,每段对话读两遍。在听每段对话前,你将有5秒钟的时间阅读题目;听完后,你将有5秒钟的时间选择你认为最合适的备选答案。
    1. What can Lucy play?
    A. B. C.
    2. What animal des Alan like?
    A. B. C.
    3. Where des the man want t g?
    A B. C.
    4. What des Jhn ften d when he is n the bus?
    A. B. C.
    5. Hw ften des Amy take her dg fr a walk?
    A. Once a day. B. Twice a day. C. Three times a day.
    6. What is Peter ging t d this Sunday afternn?
    A.T g bating.B. T g swimming. C. T have a picnic.
    7. What des the man want t be?
    A. A singer. B. A dancer. C. A dctr.
    8. What’s wrng with the by?
    A. Daniel made him cry. B. Daniel tk away his ty. C. He lst his way hme.
    9. What time did the man have lunch tday?
    A. At 11:30. B. At 12:00. C. At 12:30.
    10. Why desn’t Jenny g fishing?
    A. She has a letter t write.
    B. She has sme hmewrk t d.
    C. She has t take care f her sister.
    第二部分: 听对话和独白回答问题。本部分共有10道小题,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听一段对话,完成第11至12小题。
    Wh did Ms Bai always care abut?
    A. Pr peple. B. Children withut parents. C. Sick peple.
    When did she start the “Sunny Hme”?
    A. In 1973.B. In 1995. C. In 2003.
    听第一篇独白,完成第13至15小题。
    13. A. yellwB. white C. black
    14. A. spring B. autumn C. summer
    15. A. fd B. head C. tail
    听第二篇独白,完成第16至20小题。
    16. Where des the speaker live?
    A. In a city.B. In a twn.C. On a farm.
    17. What is in frnt f the schl building?
    A. A playgrund.B. A river. C. A garden.
    18. What des the speaker ften d with his friends in summer?
    A. They ften pick ranges.
    B. They ften rw a bat in a lake.
    C. They ften g swimming in a river.
    19. Where are the new huses?
    A. Behind the schl.B. Arund a lake.C. Near the garden.
    20. Why des the speaker enjy his life in the twn?
    A. Because the twn is small.
    B. Because his schl is in the twn.
    C. Because the peple in the twn are friendly.
    笔试部分(共100分)
    一、单项选择(共15小题,每小题1分,计15分)
    从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入句中空白处的最佳答案。
    21. We have ______ beautiful garden and I always have fun with my family there.
    A. aB. anC. theD. /
    22. Lily sat n the sfa just nw. Maybe the wl scarf is ______.
    A. sheB. herC. hersD. herself
    23. G ______ the river and yu will see the Panda Huse.
    A. abveB. underC. verD. acrss
    24. Alice fund there were drs all arund, ______ they were all lcked.
    A. asB. butC. rD. s
    25. — Culd I smke here?
    — Srry, I’m afraid yu ______.
    A. can’tB. culdn’tC. wn’tD. needn’t
    26. Later sandwiches became ______ all ver the wrld.
    A. surprisedB. strangeC. ppularD. funny
    27. My birthday is cming. I’d like t invite my friends ______ a dinner in KFC.
    A. haveB. hasC. havingD. t have
    28. Kitty ______ shpping with her mum yesterday afternn.
    A. gB. is gingC. wentD. will g
    29. — ______ des it take frm Yancheng t the center f Beijing by high-speed railway?
    — Abut six hurs.
    A. Hw farB. Hw lngC. Hw muchD. Hw many
    30. ______ interesting bk The Old and the Sea is!
    A. HwB. Hw anC. WhatD. What an
    31. I like watching my lvely dg ______ after a ball.
    A. runB. runsC. t runD. ran
    32. Culd yu stay a little lnger? I have ______ mre t tell yu abut the plan fr tmrrw.
    A. everythingB. smethingC. anythingD. nthing
    33. It’s s cludy. I think it ______.
    A. rainB. rainsC. is ging t rainD. rained
    34. Pandas are very cute. They like t ______ all day lng.
    A. hurry upB. lie dwnC. turn arundD. run away
    35. — Can we g swimming when we have a picnic tday, Dad?
    — ______. It’s dangerus t swim in the lake.
    A. Oh, I seeB. With pleasure
    C. Gd ideaD. N, I’m afraid nt
    二、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
    阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
    If yu g t Dubai, yu may see a special kind f taxi. It is a drne. It 36 in the sky by itself!
    The drne taxi is named EHang-184. It was 37 in China. The city f Dubai started using it 38 an air taxi in July, 2017. And it has been the wrld’s first passenger (乘客) drne s far.
    The Chinese-made EHang-184 drne has fur wings. It can nly take ne 39 . The drne taxi can fly up t 3,500 meters
    40 in the sky. It can fly 160 kilmeters an hur.
    Hw can yu 41 the EHang-184 trip? That’s easy. Yu can use its app n yur phne. When the drne cmes 42 near yur neighbrhd, yu can get n it. And then tell the 43 yu want t g t n the tuch screen befre yu. There is n driver in the drne, but many “drivers” n the grund are 44 yu. Dn’t be 45 . They will make sure yur trip is safe.
    EHang-184 can nly fly in the air fr abut 30 minutes, s it cannt take yu further than 80 kilmeters.
    36. A. runsB. walksC. fliesD. cmes
    37. A. made B. fund C. studiedD. used
    38. A. t B. as C. frD. with
    39. A. bag B. rm C. persnD. driver
    40. A. wide B. far C. lngD. high
    41. A. getB. seeC. finishD. enjy
    42. A. up B. ut C. dwnD. frm
    43. A. time B. place C. priceD. prgram
    44. A. watching B. visiting C. taking D. understanding
    45. A. glad B. afraid C. srry D. late
    三、阅读理解(共30小题,计50分)
    (一) 阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。(共15小题,每小题2分,计30分)
    A
    Ntice
    46. Hw ften d the English club members practice English?
    A. Once a week. B. Twice a week.
    C. Three times a week.D. Fur times a week.
    47. Hw many students will get a surprise after the math exam?
    A. 10.B. 20.C. 23. D. 25.
    48. Where will Tm, a ninth-grade student, prbably be at 3:00 p. m. n April 25th?
    A. In Building A. B. In Building B.
    C. In the schl hall. D. In the music rm.
    49. What activity will the schl have n May 23rd?
    A. A singing cmpetitin. B. A math exam.
    C. An English cmpetitin. D. A talk abut hw t learn English well.
    50. Where can yu see this ntice?
    A. In a shp.B. In a hspital.C. In a schl. D. In a restaurant.
    B
    The ther day, I heard frm a girl. She said that her friend just gt a dg. Her friend talked abut the dg all the time. It made the girl feel bad because she didn’t have ne.
    Here’s what I wrte back t her:
    Dear Judy,
    There are peple wh have nicer hmes than us, have better jbs, r, in yur case, wn a cute dg yu dn’t have.
    It’s quite natural (自然的) t want things that we can’t have, but instead, we shuld appreciate (珍惜) what we already have, r feel happy fr peple wh have the thing we want.
    In fact, wning a dg means a lt f hard wrk. Dgs need care, attentin, exercise and lve. There’s als a lt f cleaning yu’d need t d fr it. Dg hair and dirty paw prints (爪印) wuld be everywhere in yur hme.
    It’s great t spend time with dgs thugh, s why nt ask yur friend if yu can jin her when she takes her dg ut fr a walk? Yu’d get t spend sme fun time with yur friend and get sme exercise by walking.
    And wh knws – ne day, yu might wn yur wn dg, t.
    Dale
    51. Wh did the writer get a letter frm?
    A. Judy. B. Dale. C. Judy’s friend. D. Dale’s friend.
    52. What was the girl’s prblem?
    A. She didn’t like her friend anymre.
    B. She didn’t like having a dg as a pet.
    C. She felt sad because her dg was lst.
    D. Her friend had a dg and she didn’t have ne.
    53. What des the writer think f the girl’s prblem?
    A. S funny.B. T bad.C. Really great.D. Quite natural.
    54. What is the main idea f Paragraph 3 f Dale’s letter?
    A. Owning a dg is easy.
    B. Keeping a dg is nt easy.
    C. Nicer hmes are gd fr everybdy.
    D. Dgs are the mst difficult animal t keep as a pet.
    55. What des the writer advise (建议) the girl t d?
    A. Ask her parents t buy her a dg.
    B. D smething else with her friend.
    C. Jin her friend t walk the dg tgether.
    D. Write t her friend t shw her feelings.
    C
    The lrd had tw daughters. One, Harriet, was always sick. She never left the huse. The ther, Anne, lved riding. She liked t ride me, and I liked carrying her. She was kind and gentle. One day, she wanted t ride ne f the new hrses. Her name was Lizzie.
    “Dn’t ride Lizzie,” Anne’s friend said. “Yu are nt strng enugh fr her.”
    Anne didn’t listen.
    “Dn’t wrry abut me,” she said. “I can ride any hrse. Yu ride Black Beauty.”
    She rde away n Lizzie. Her friend fllwed her n me.
    Anne’s friend went int a shp. Anne waited utside. She was sitting n Lizzie.
    Suddenly, a by walked tward us. He was leading sme hrses. They were yung and wild. One f them ran int Lizzie. She was afraid. She began t run. Anne culd nt stp her.
    “Help! Help!” she shuted.
    Anne’s friend ran ut f the shp. He jumped n my back.
    “Cme n, Beauty,” he said. “We must stp her.”
    I ran after Lizzie as fast as I culd.
    Sn we were getting nearer t Lizzie and Anne. Then Lizzie tried t jump ver a gate. She fell. Anne fell, t.
    A man was wrking nearby.
    “Get the dctr!” Anne’s friend shuted t him. “Take my hrse!”
    The man jumped nt my back. I ran back t twn as fast as I culd.
    The man tld the dctr abut the accident (事故). The dctr rde ff t help Anne.
    He brught her back t the huse in a cach. She was alive, but her eyes were clsed. She did nt speak.
    She was sick fr many weeks, and then she gt better.
    “Yu must always ride Beauty,” her father tld her. “Yu must never ride anther hrse. Yu can always trust (信任) Beauty.”
    I was very prud.
    56. Wh is “I” in Paragraph 1?
    The lrd.B. A by named Harriet.
    C. Anne’s friend. D. A hrse called Black Beauty.
    57. Anne’s friend asked her nt t ride the new hrse because ______.
    A. the hrse was sickB. he himself wanted t ride it
    C. Anne was nt strng enughD. the new hrse was t yung
    58. Why did Lizzie get afraid?
    A. Because Anne’s friend ran after her.
    B. Because ne wild hrse ran twards Lizzie.
    C. Because Anne jumped n her back suddenly.
    D. Because the wrking man asked her t jump ver a high gate.
    59. Which f the fllwing is the crrect rder f what happened in the stry?
    ① Anne rde a new hrse — Lizzie.
    ② Black Beauty ran t get a dctr t save Anne.
    ③ Lizzie fell and Anne was hurt.
    ④ Anne gt better after weeks.
    A. ①②④③B. ①③②④C. ②①③④D. ③④①②
    60. What is the stry mainly abut?
    A. Why Black Beauty liked Anne.B. Why Anne’s friend liked shpping.
    C. Hw Anne practised riding a hrse.D. Hw Black Beauty helped save Anne.
    (二) 任务型阅读。(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
    阅读下面短文,根据短文内容完成表格中所缺信息,每空一词。
    As the days get htter, we can stay inside and turn n the air cnditining (空调) t stay cmfrtable. But d yu knw that in ancient (古代的) China, peple used a different kind f “air cnditining”?
    Starting frm the Qin Dynasty, rich families began t stre ice during winter. As summer began, they used ice t cl their hmes. Peple wuld put a cntainer (容器) with many ice cubes inside f it in their rms. Servants (仆人) wuld fan the cntainers t make cl air.
    But cmmn peple culdn’t stre ice. S they spent ht days near wells (井). Sme peple wuld keep their fd in empty wells. The wells wuld keep the fd cl and fresh, just like a fridge.
    Chinese peple als made their wn summer drinks, such as well water and drinks made frm herbs (草药). It is said that Kublai Khan (忽必烈) – emperr f the Yuan Dynasty – liked drinking milk with ice and sweet candy. Sme peple believe that it was the wrld’s first ice cream.
    It is really amazing that there are still many ther ways t make them cl. Yu can find ut sme n the Internet.
    (三) 阅读与回答问题。(共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)
    Have yu heard f bubble tea? It’s frm Taiwan. It’s like a drink and a snack in ne cup. Shps that sell it are pening all ver.
    Bubble tea starts with milk tea. Then, treats are added. They usually rest at the bttm (底部). They’re sweet. Peple call them “bubbles.” Many times, there are als bubbles n tp f the drink. Yu will see the bubbles when yu shake the drink.
    Bubble tea was first made in Taiwan in the 1980s. It sn became ppular. And it spread acrss Asia. In the 1990s, bubble tea shps started pening in the US. Nw, they’re everywhere.
    Sme bubble tea shps sell ver a hundred flavrs (味道)! Wuld yu like mang? Hw abut chclate pudding? And dn’t frget the tppings. Hw abut red beans r smething else?
    Bubble tea shps can be great places t have fun. In sme places, kids g there t play with friends.
    回答下面5个问题, 每题答案不超过5个词。
    71. Where is bubble tea frm?
    72. When did bubble tea shps start pening in the US?
    73. Hw many flavrs d sme bubble tea shps sell?
    74. What may kids d in sme bubble tea shps?
    75. What’s the best title (标题) fr the text?
    四、词汇(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
    (一) 根据句意和汉语提示写出单词,完成句子。每空一词。
    76. China has an ▲ f ver 9,600,000 square kilmeters. (面积)
    77. The little by is t ▲ and can’t walk any further. (虚弱的)
    78. If yu want t learn mre abut art, dn’t ▲ the shws in the museum! (错过)
    79. The bk f petry is the earliest cllectin f ▲ in Chinese histry. (诗歌)
    80. Sun bears usually live ▲ and are happy t spend their time by themselves. (独自)
    (二) 根据句意用括号内所给单词的适当形式填空,使句子完整、正确。
    81. Hw ▲ I am t have such a gd teacher! (luck)
    82. Giraffes’ lng necks help them eat the ▲ frm trees. (leaf)
    83. Can I use yur pencil please? I left ▲ at hme. (my)
    84. I asked my cusin if he culd help me and he ▲ . (nd)
    85. Dn’t frget t knck n the dr befre yu ▲ the ffice. (enter)
    五、书面表达(共1小题,计15分)
    86. 学校英语俱乐部将举办“My e-friend”征文比赛活动,请你根据以下提示,用英语写一篇短文参赛。
    write gd articles
    raise mney fr…
    Andy
    practise skating

    注意事项:
    1. 词数:80词左右(文章开头已给出,不计入总词数);
    2. 文中不能出现真实姓名、校名等信息;
    3. 文章必须包含所提供的主要信息,并作适当发挥。
    My e-friend
    This is my e-friend, Andy.


    2020—2021学年度第二学期期终考试
    七年级英语答题纸
    听力部分(共20分)
    本部分共20小题,每小题1分,计20分。
    1. _________ 2. ________ 3. ________ 4. ________ 5. ________
    6. _________ 7. ________ 8. ________ 9. ________10. ________
    11. _________12. ________ 13. ________14. ________ 15. ________
    16. _________17. ________18. ________19. ________ 20. ________
    笔试部分(共100分)
    一、单项选择(共15小题,每小题1分,计15分)
    21. ________22. ________ 23. ________ 24. ________25. ________
    26. ________27. ________ 28. ________ 29. ________30. ________
    31. ________32. ________ 33. ________ 34. ________35. ________
    二、完形填空(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
    36. ________37. ________ 38. ________ 39. ________40. ________
    41. ________42. ________ 43. ________ 44. ________45. ________
    三、阅读理解 (共30小题,计50分)
    (一)阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案。(共15小题,每小题2分,计30分)
    46. ________47. ________ 48. ________ 49. ________50. ________
    51. ________52. ________ 53. ________ 54. ________55. ________
    56. ________ 57. ________ 58. ________ 59. ________60. ________
    (二)任务型阅读。(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
    61. ________62. ________ 63. ________ 64. ________65. ________
    66. ________67. ________ 68. ________ 69. ________70. ________
    A dg’s life
    Name
    Buddy
    Age
    Three
    Weight
    15 kg
    Clr
    13
    Like
    ◆Walking in the park at the weekend and n the beach in 14
    ◆Taking shwers
    Dislike
    Tuching his 15
    English Club
    Fr the seventh-grade students
    Time: Tuesday afternn and Friday evening
    Place: Building A
    Tele: 77459312
    Math Exam
    Fr the ninth-grade students
    Time: n Mnday, March 20th
    Place: Building B
    PS: Tp 10 will get a surprise
    A Talk
    Fr all students
    Time: 14:30 – 16:30, April 25th
    Place: in the schl hall
    Tpic: Hw t Learn English Well
    Singing Cmpetitin (竞赛)
    Fr the eighth-grade students
    Time: n Thursday, May 23rd
    Place: in the music rm
    Tele: 58172352
    Title
    Air cnditining in ancient 61
    Intrductin
    We can turn n the air cnditining t make urselves 62 .
    Main bdy
    Rich 63
    * They stred 64 in winter.
    * Peple put cntainers in their 65 when summer began.
    * Servants fanned the cntainers t make cl air.
    Cmmn peple
    * They wuld stay near wells during 66 days.
    * T keep fd cl and 67 , peple put it in empty wells.
    Other ways
    * Chinese peple made summer 68 frm well water r herbs.
    * Kublai Khan liked drinking milk with ice and sweet 69 .
    Cnclusin
    We can find ut mre 70 ways n the Internet.
    题号
    1-10
    11-20
    21-35
    36-45
    46-60
    61-70
    71-75
    76-85
    86
    总分
    得分
    ………………………………………密……………………………………封……………………………………线………………………………………
    (三)阅读与回答问题。(共5小题,每小题2分,计10分)
    每题答案不超过5个词
    71. ___________________________________________________________
    72. ___________________________________________________________
    73. ___________________________________________________________
    74. ___________________________________________________________
    75. ___________________________________________________________
    四、词汇(共10小题,每小题1分,计10分)
    (一) 根据句意和汉语提示写出单词,完成句子。每空一词。
    76. ________ 77. ________ 78. ________ 79. ________ 80. ________
    (二) 根据句意用括号内所给单词的适当形式填空,使句子完整、正确。
    81. ________ 82. ________ 83. ________ 84. ________ 85. ________
    五、书面表达(共1小题,计15分)
    86.
    This is my e-friend, Andy. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

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