西藏林芝市第二高级中学2021-2022学年高二下学期第一学段考试（期中）英语试题（内地班）（含答案）

林芝市第二高级中2021～2022学年度高二英语

第二学期第一学段测试

考试总分：150分；考试时间：120分钟；命题人：

第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）

第一节（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分75分）

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. Whose pen is it?

A. Tom’s                        B. Jim’s                C. Bob’s

2. Where are they?

A. At a bookstore.                B. At a clothes shop.       C. At a restaurant.

3. When’s the boy’s birthday?

A. March 3rd.                   B. January 3rd.           C. January 2nd.

4. How does the man study for the English test?

A. By asking the teacher for help.   B. By doing homework.     C. By listening to the tape.

5. What does the man think of Mary?

A. Lazy.                       B. Very hard-working       C. Clever.

第二节（共15小题，每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6. How does the boy get to school?

A. On foot.                     B. By bike.               C. By bus.

7. How far is the boy’s home from the school?

A. 30 meters.           B. 300 kilometers.     C. 300 meters.

听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。

8. What day is it today?

A. Sunday.              B. Monday.           C. Saturday.

9. When will she start?

A. At 8:15.              B. At 7:45.          C. At 8:00.

10. Where’s the bus stop?

A. Near Beihu Park.     B. Next to their school.    C. Across from their school.

听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。

11. How long has the boy been late today?

A. More than one hour.   B. One hour.            C. Less than one hour.

12. What’s the relationship(关系) between the boy and the woman?

A. Mother and son.      B. Sister and brother.      C. Teacher and student.

13. Why didn’t the boy hear the alarm?

听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。

14. What would Sally like for lunch?

A. Rice and beef.        B. Vegetable soup.         C. Both A and B.

15. How much is the meal?

A.＄50.          B.＄15.                  C.＄25.

16. How soon will the meal be sent to Sally?

A. In 20 minutes.        B. In 10 minutes.           C. Very soon.

听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17. When will the exam end?

A. At 9:00 am.           B. At 10:00 am.            C. At 11:00 am.

18. Why isn’t Mr. Green here?

A. Because he has gone to America.   B. Because he’s ill.      C. Because he has gone to England.

19. Can the students guess in the exam according to the passage?

A. Yes, they can.                  B. No, they can’t.      C. We don’t know.

20. Which of the following is true?

A. If there is a difficult question in the exam, please stop and think it for a long time.

B. Try to leave the questions unanswered when you finish the test.

C. Relax yourselves before you answer the question.

第二部分：阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）

阅读下列四篇短文，从每小题后所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。

A

Urban Transportation in Canada

A good transportation has become an important tool for cities and citizens. Let’s know something about the transportation in cities of Canada.

Public transportation & Transit passes

All cities and most major towns in Canada have a public transportation system with one or more forms of transportation (bus, subway, train, etc.). The bus is the most common form of urban transportation in Canada. To use public transportation, you must buy a ticket or a transit pass. Transit passes allow you unlimited use of public transportation for a specific period (one month or more). They are usually cheaper than buying many tickets if you plan to use public transportation often.

Transportation for people with disabilities

Public transportation often has features to help people with disabilities. In many cities and towns, there are also transportation services available specifically for people with limited mobility, such as specially equipped buses. You can find out about these services in the same way you would learn more about other public transportation options.

Manners on public transportation

When taking public transportation, it is important to understand the unspoken rules of behaviors in the shared space. Here are a few things to note:

Be polite and respectful to others around you. For example, maintain an appropriate noise level when talking or making a phone call.

If you are carrying a backpack or a large shoulder bag in a crowded public transit vehicle, keep it close to you.

Avoid pushing or touching others in order to make more room for yourself.

Have your proof of payment within easy reach in case you are asked to show it.

21. What is the advantage of using transit passes over buying tickets?

A. More use of transport.   B. Longer service hours.

C. Lower costs.   D. Safer trips.

22. How does the transportation system help people with disabilities?

A. By limiting their mobility on city buses.  

B. By running special transport services.

C. By offering fewer transportation options.  

D. By providing free rides in towns and cities.

23. What is the main purpose of the text?

A. To show the author's attitude towards urban transportation in Canada.

B. To tell people how to take public transportation in Canada.

C. To call on people to take public transportation on a regular basis.

D. To introduce some basic information about urban transportation in Canada.

B

Suddenly one Sunday in August, the streets are filled with color. A group of bands and dancers makes its way slowly through the city. Every evening, crowds of people walk up to the top of the Royal Mile, looking forward to a show of military music. On every shop window and noticeboard, posters have appeared, advertising everything from poetry readings to children's theatre, art exhibitions to concerts. It’s festival time.

From its beginning in 1947, the Edinburgh International Festival (the “official” festival) has become a world-famous cultural event. The city turns into a huge arts centre, with its music, drama, dance and exhibitions, all by artists of international fame (名声). Every year more than twenty nations perform to audiences from all over the world in theaters, halls, schools, churches and the streets of the city. The Edinburgh Military Tattoo adds to the choice of entertainment, with its marching and military bands in Edinburgh Castle. 

The Festival Fringe (the “unofficial” festival) is the biggest event of its kind in the world, with more than 900 shows to choose from and over 6, 000 writers and performers taking part. It gives people a first-class opportunity to see many works performed for the first time-several of which go on to give successful performances elsewhere.

The Film Festival gives fans an opportunity to widen their knowledge of films. And to show that there is something for everyone, the Jazz Festival has become very popular in recent years. You can hear the very best of music all over the city at this time. There is no more exciting place to be than in Edinburgh at festival time!

24. What is the first paragraph mainly about?

A. The growth of the Edinburgh International Festival.

B. The coming events of the Edinburgh International Festival.

C. The festive scene of the Edinburgh International Festival.

D. The history of the Edinburgh International Festival.

25. Where is the Edinburgh Military Tattoo held?

A. Along the Royal Mil.   B. In Edinburgh Castle.

C. In theaters.    D. In churches.

26. What can we learn about the Festival Fringe?

A. It is as famous as the Edinburgh International Festival.

B. Many leading artists take part in it.

C. It has become an official event.

D. Some plays are performed for the first time.

27. Where does this text probably come from?

A. A tourist guide.    B. A music textbook.

C. A chemical paper.    D. An official report.

C

Mark Twain (1835-1910)—we’ve all heard the name, but what makes him “the father of American literature” as classic US author William Faulkner once called him?

Mark Twain is someone Americans are taught to love. Older relatives, English teachers and the media always praise him. But when you actually take the time to read The Adventures of Tom Sawyer, you find that his work is more wonderful than you could have ever imagined.

The novel describes a young boy named Tom Sawyer growing up in a small town along the Mississippi River. He explores the countryside on a riverboat with his friends, falls in love with girls, starts secret clubs and searches for treasure. Twain's idea of childhood is magical—a time of imagination, wonder and, of course, adventure.

More importantly, through the eyes of Tom Sawyer, Twain cleverly makes fun of US culture. For example, Tom hates going to church, and Twain uses scenes of Tom there to mock religion and its old traditions. “Often, the less there is to justify a traditional custom, the harder it is to get rid of it,” he writes in one chapter.

Twain’s writing is full of these kinds of critical points about culture and politics. That's why he is so loved in the US—he wasn't afraid to state his opinions, and he did so clearly. For instance, Twain didn't like US wars abroad. In 1900, after the US invaded the Philippines, Twain wrote in a newspaper article: “We do not intend to free, but to subjugate the people of the Philippine. We have gone there to conquer.” He also believed strongly in women's right to vote in elections and gave a famous speech on the subject, called “Votes for Women”, in 1901. “Tom was a glittering hero once more—the pet of the old, the envy of the young,” Twain writes in The Adventures of Tom Sawyer. But he could just as well be describing himself.

28. After reading The Adventures of Tom Sawyer, you are likely to think ___________according to the author.

A. it’s not worth all the praise  B. it’s even better than you expected

C. it’s as awful as you expected  D. it’s better to read it with teachers

29. In the third paragraph, the author mainly ___________.

A. indicates what makes Tom Sawyer's adventures so wonderful

B. explains where Twain’s idea of childhood comes from

C. shows how naughty and adventurous Tom Sawyer is

D. gives a brief description of the novel

30. Twain is so loved in the US because ___________.

A. he showed readers a magical childhood that everyone would love

B. he criticized American culture and society clearly and cleverly

C. he wrote bad things about US wars abroad

D. he supported women's right to vote

31. Which is TRUE according to the passage?

A. Twain's writing is expressing critical points about culture and politics.

B. Twain is much more famous than William Faulkner.

C. All the Americans hate Twain.

D. Twain disagree with women's right.

D

NASA said its Kepler spacecraft has spotted “Earth’s bigger, older cousin”: the first nearly Earth-size planet to be found in the habitable zone of a star similar to our own.

Though NASA can’t say for sure whether the planet is rocky like ours or has water and air, it's the closest match yet found.

The planet, Kepler-452b, is about 60% bigger than Earth, NASA says, and is located in its star’s habitable zone, where life-sustaining liquid water is possible on the surface of a planet.

A visitor there would experience gravity about twice that of Earth’s, and scientists say the possibility of it having a rocky surface are “better than ever”. While it’s a bit farther from its star than Earth is from the sun, its star is brighter, so the planet receives about the same amount of energy from its star as Earth does from the sun.

Kepler researcher Jeff Jenkins said, “The planet almost certainly has an atmosphere, although scientists can’t say what it's made of. But if the assumptions are correct, kepler-452b's atmosphere may be thicker than Earth’s.”

It takes 385 days for the planet to orbit its star. “Because it has spent so long orbiting in this zone-6 billion years—it's had plenty of time to brew life,” Jenkins said.

“That’s an opportunity for life to arise, if all the necessary ingredients and conditions for life exist on this planet,” he said in a statement.

Kepler-452b is too far away for humans to visit. But the discovery of this new Earth-like planet can tell us a lot about what’s possible for the future of space travel. “The next step in the process is to do follow-up missions to find planets similar to kepler-452b, but much closer to Earth,” said Peter Coughlin, a Kepler research scientist. “We could do a lot more research into those planets, and even start to think about visiting one day.”

32. The researchers are sure that Kepler-452b __________.

A. is larger than Earth   B. has an atmosphere

C. has air and water   D. has many rocks

33. What is the similarity between Kepler-452b and the Earth?

A. They are both located in the sun's habitable zone.

B. Their distances from the sun are almost the same.

C. Their atmospheres are made of the same compositions.

D. They get almost the same amount of energy from their stars.

34. The underlined word “brew” in Paragraph 6 most probably means __________.

A. improve            B. endanger         C. produce D. protect

35. What should be the best title for the text?

A. Kepler-452b Is Compared to the Earth      

B. NASA Discovers a New Earth-Like Planet

C. A Spacecraft Was Launched to Find Super-Earth

D. A New Planet with Life Is Discovered

第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Nowadays, we usually live at a rapid pace and have to deal with lots of things every day.     36   Don’t worry! Here are 4 tips, which may help you to make more time.

Only have three major tasks on your daily to -do list.

To reduce stress and become more effective, you can make a daily plan, which includes only the first three important tasks.    37    

Call time on social media.

Social media is usually a terrible timewaster, especially when you are busy with lots of work. 38 Then do the things you always say you have to do at once.

    39   

Considering that almost everything takes longer than you expect, leave 10 to 15 minutes in between tasks to allow yourself to become recharged (恢复精力) and go on with another.

Draw up a timeline for something important.

   40    Write out a timeline with short-term goals leading to the achievement of your long-term ambition.

A. Save some time for yourself.

B. Build in extra time.

C. Even if your project is a long- term one, start the planning process as soon as possible.

D. You need to finish them in a hurry.

E. So set an alarm to remind you that it’s time to stop checking your phone.

F. In the case, have you ever felt stressed and anxious?

G. Getting these done will give you a sense of achievement.

第三部分：英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

第一节 完形填空（共20小题，每小题1. 5分，满分30分）

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出适合填入对应空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。

You are only three years old, and at this point in your life you are not able to understand this letter. But some day when you     41    , I hope you will find something     42     in what I am going to share with you.

Life can be      43    . There will be people in your life who won't be very nice. They'll      44     you because you are different, or for no good      45    . You will also face heartbreak and might be      46     by those you love. I hope you don't have to face these too much, but such things      47    .

Be open to life anyway. You'll find cruelty and      48     in your journey through life, but don’t let that    49 you from finding new things. Don’t retreat (退却) from life， and don’t      50     or wall yourself off. Be open to new things, new experiences and new people. You'll      51     many times, but if you allow that to stop you from trying, you will      52     many chances. Do remember failure is a stepping stone to      53    .

You will meet many people who will try to do      54     than you, in school, in college and at work. They'll try to have nicer cars, bigger houses, nicer clothes, and so on. To them, life is a      55    . However, I believe life is a      56    . If you always try your best to      57     others, you're wasting your life. Learn to enjoy your life      58     and you will make it a journey of      59    , of learning and of love.

Finally, know that I love you and always will. You are      60     a really wonderful journey, and I will always be there for you.

41. A. grow up      B. show up C. cheer up            D. calm down

42. A. familiar      B. valuable C. normal             D. interesting

43. A. unkind       B. peaceful C. equal             D. simple

44. A. end up with    B. get on well with C. laugh at  D. look after

45. A. award         B. balance C. diet  D. reason

46. A. hurt        B. found C. accepted  D. impressed

47. A. matter        B. work C. disappear  D. happen

48. A. luck        B. pain C. difference             D. hope

49. A. protect        B. encourage C. prevent  D. choose

50. A. forgive        B. struggle C. compete  D. hide

51. A. leave        B. prepare C. escape  D. fail

52. A. enjoy        B. try             C. miss  D. meet

53. A. success       B. life             C. action  D. sorrow

54. A. earlier        B. better C. less  D. faster

55. A. career                         B. entertainment 

C. achievement             D. competition

56. A. challenge    B. drama C. journey  D. dream

57. A. change      B. pardon C. follow  D. beat

58. A. somewhere   B. instead C. afterwards             D. though

59. A. cruelty      B. danger C. happiness             D. quietness

60. A. starting      B. destroying C. recreating             D. replacing

第二节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1. 5分，满分15分）

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

When I was very young, I struggled in a kindergarten. I didn’t like school,      6l.       mostly I had trouble with reading and writing and I cried a lot at school. One day, I realized that if I continued like this, my parents    62.    (be)always hard on me. Therefore, I decided     63.   (change) my study way and grow up happily.

I paid more attention in class, and after class I practiced    64.   (study) new vocabularies so that I could improve them. I started to do   65.   ( good) in 1st grade than before, and gradually I was one of the top    66.   (student) in class. By 4th grade I was doing fine and I learned many new words and I spelled them    67.    (correct).

It might be    68.    (difficulty) when I started to change    69.   (I)at first, but I never gave up and practiced hard. Now my life is going well and smoothly and I know I will succeed   70.   school.

第四部分：写作（共两节，满分35分）

第一节 短文改错（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）

假如英语课上老师要求同学们交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处错误。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（^），并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线（＼）划掉。

修改：在错的词下划一横线（______），并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：1.每处错误及修改均仅限一词；

2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。

A teacher stood in the front of his history class of twenty students just before hand out the final exam. His students sat quietly, waiting him to speak. “It’s been a pleasure to teaching you this term,” he said. “You’ve all worked very hard, but I have a pleasant surprise for you. Everyone that choose not to take the final exam will get a “B” for the course.” Most of the students jumped out of their seats, thanked the teacher happy, and walked out of the classroom. Only a little students stayed. The teacher smiled. “Congratulation,” he said. “I’m glad that you believe in you. You all get A’s.”

第二节 书面表达（满分25分）

假定你是李华，假设你所居住的城市，林芝市体委将要举办夏季田径运动会，现在正在招募志愿者，你希望成为其中的一员，请求你按要求给体委组写一封信。内容应包括：

1.个人情况：年龄；性别，学历

2.个人条件：善于藏语和汉语，善于交际，爱好体育，乐于助人；

3.承诺：提供最佳服务。

注意：1.可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；

2.词数：不少于100词（开头已给出，但不计入总词数）。

Dear Madam and Sir,

_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Yours sincerely,

Li Hua

2021～2022学年度第二学期期中

高一英语参考答案及评分标准

第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）

1-5：C B C A B  6-10：A C C B C  11-15：B C B C B  16-20：A C A A C

第二部分：阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）

A)21. C     22. B     23. D

B)24. C     25. B     26. D      27. A

C)28. B     29. D     30. B     31. A

D)32. A     33. D     34. C     35. B

第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）

36. F     37.G     38. E     39. B      40. C

第三部分：英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

第一节 完形填空（共20小题，每小题1. 5分，满分30分）

41. A     42. B     43. A     44. C     45. D      46. A

47. D     48. B     49. C     50. D     51. D      52. C

53.A     54. B     55. D     56. C     57. D     58. B

59. C     60. A

第二节 语法填空（共10小题，每小题1. 5分，满分15分）

61. so        62. would be   63. to change    64. studying    65. better    

66. students   67. correctly    68. difficult     69. myself     70. in

第四部分：写作（共两节，满分35分）

第一节 短文改错（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）

第二节 书面表达（满分25分）

参考范文：

Dear Madam or Sir,

I am Li Hua, a high school student living in Beijing. Having heard the exciting news of the recruitment of Games volunteers for the Nyingchi Summer Track Games, I am writing to apply for the job and illustrate my advantages for it.

I am bilingual in Chinese and Tibetan, which serves as a foundation for my volunteer work in communicating with and delivering services to athletes from around the world. As a former volunteer for school sports events, my experience has equipped me with the most essential qualities as a volunteer, namely, enthusiasm, diligence, and devotion. Moreover, it is my love for watching sports events that drives me to learn relevant knowledge. That’s why I believe I’m capable of doing the work.

Finally, I hope to spread the joy and excitement of the Nyingchi Summer Track Games to the whole Nyingchi, if the chance were offered to me.

Yours,

Li Hua