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    2022遂宁高一上学期期末考试英语含答案

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    这是一份2022遂宁高一上学期期末考试英语含答案,共16页。试卷主要包含了考试结束后,将答题卡收回等内容,欢迎下载使用。

     遂宁市高中2024届第一学期教学水平监测
    英 语 试 题
    本试卷分第Ⅰ卷(选择题)和第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)两部分。总分150分,考试时间120分钟。
    第 Ⅰ 卷(选择题,满分100分)
    注意事项:
    1.答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、班级、考号用0.5毫米的黑色墨水签字笔填写在答题卡上。并检查条形码粘贴是否正确。
    2.1-60小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡对应题目标号的位置上,非选择题用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔书写在答题卡对应框内,超出答题区域书写的答案无效;在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。
    3.考试结束后,将答题卡收回。

    第一部分:听力(共两节,满分30分)
    做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
    第一节(共5 小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
    听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
    1. Where does the conversation probably take place?
    A. At a ticket office. B. In a bank. C. On a train.
    2. What will the woman do this afternoon?
    A. Do some exercise. B. Wash her clothes. C. Go shopping.
    3. How does the woman feel now?
    A. Relaxed. B. Tired. C. Excited.
    4. What time is it now?
    A. 9:50. B. 10:00. C. 9:10.
    5. What does Donna offer to do for Bill?
    A. Book a flight for him.
    B. Drive him to the airport.
    C. Help him park the car.
    第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
    听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听第 6 段材料,回答第 6 至 7 题。
    6. What’s the woman doing?
    A. Asking for help. B. Giving advice. C. Making an invitation.
    7. What does the man plan to do today?
    A. Help Emily study. B. Play tennis. C. Go on a trip.
    听第 7 段材料,回答第 8 至 10 题。
    8. What is the woman’s favorite music?
    A. Jazz music. B. Rock music. C. Classical music.
    9. Who plays the violin better?
    A. The woman. B. The woman’s husband. C. The woman’s uncle.
    10. What will the woman arrange this Friday evening?
    A. A course of classical music.
    B. A drum performance for her husband.
    C. A party for her music teacher.
    听第 8 段材料,回答第 11 至 13 题。
    11. How did the speakers find out the restaurant?
    A. From a friend. B. From a website. C. From the newspaper.
    12. What does the woman want to do on the way home?
    A. Buy some pizza.
    B. Get another drink.
    C. Complain to the manager.
    13. What does the man think of his drink?
    A. It’ s terrible. B. It’s pretty good. C. It’s too sweet. 听第 9 段材料,回答第 14 至 17 题。
    14. Why is the woman going to the United States?
    A. To see her grandma. B. To see her friends. C. To see her parents.
    15. When will the woman leave for America?
    A. This Friday. B. This weekend. C. Next Saturday.
    16. How long will the woman stay in America?
    A. Seven months. B. Half a year. C. Fifteen weeks.
    17. What does the man think of the way to travel by train in America?
    A. Expensive and slow. B. Cheap and slow. C. Expensive but fast.
    听第 10 段材料,回答第 18 至 20 题。
    18. Why was the speaker’s mother angry at him?
    A. He didn’t become a doctor.
    B. He was crazy about taking photos.
    C. He painted everywhere in the house.
    19. What is the speaker’s father?
    A. An artist. B. A doctor. C. A photographer.
    20. What has happened to the speaker in the end?
    A. He has developed many hobbies.
    B. He has given up his dream.
    C. He has been feeling sorry for himself.
    第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
    第一节(共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
    阅读下列短文,从每篇短文后所给各题的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
    A
    Bank Holidays in the UK
    Public holidays in the UK are commonly referred to as bank holidays. As the UK is a country made up of four more or less independent regions, official holidays vary depending on whether you live in England, Wales, Scotland, or Northern Ireland.
    There are eight bank holidays in England and Wales.
    Holidays
    Time of The Year
    New Year’s Day (substitute day)
    1 January (3 January 2022)
    Good Friday
    15 April 2022
    Easter Monday
    18 April 2022
    Early May
    2 May 2022
    Spring Bank Holiday
    2 June 2022
    Summer Bank Holiday
    29 August 2022
    Christmas Day (substitute day)
    25 December (26 December 2022)
    Boxing Day (substitute day)
    26 December (27 December 2022)
    When bank holidays fall on a weekend, the following Monday is usually a “substitute” holiday. For instance, 25 December 2022 is Sunday, so there will be a national substitute holiday for Christmas Day on Monday, 26 December 2022.
    In Scotland, the summer bank holiday is earlier in August. Moreover, Scots celebrate St. Andrew’s Day on 30 November and 2 January is also a bank holiday, but Easter Monday is not. All in all, there are nine bank holidays in Scotland.
    In Northern Ireland, St. Patrick’s Day on 17 March is a bank holiday, and so is Orangemen’s Day on 12 July which commemorates(纪念)the Battle of Boyne. There are a total of ten bank holidays in Northern Ireland, making it the region with the most holidays in the UK.
    The UK does not have a national day, making it only one of two countries in the world without one (the other is Denmark). There’s an old joke about this, that the United Kingdom, once called “the empire on which the sun never sets”, doesn’t need its own national day because it’s indirectly responsible for so many other countries’ national independence days.
    21. Which region has the most holidays in the UK?
    A. England. B. Scotland. C. Wales. D. Northern Ireland.
    22. Which of the following bank holidays are celebrated in Scotland?
    A. St. Andrew’s Day and 2 January.
    B. Easter Monday and St. Patrick’s Day.
    C. St. Patrick’s Day and Orangemen’s Day.
    D. Easter Monday and Orangemen’s Day.
    23. What does the joke in the last sentence imply?
    A. The UK’s culture influenced many countries.
    B. The UK used to rule a lot of countries.
    C. The UK’s independence greatly encouraged many countries.
    D. The UK helped many countries set their independence days.
    B
    Pablo Picasso was born on October 25 in Malaga, Spain in 1881. Taking after his father, Picasso shared a passion(热爱)for painting and art. Even though he wasn't the best student in school, Picasso excelled at drawing. Noticing his amazing talent, Picasso's father, an artist, taught him everything he knew. Before long, Picasso could paint and draw much better than his father. With this rich talent, Picasso paid less and less attention to his schoolwork and spent the majority of his day sketching and drawing in notepads and sketchbooks.
    When he was a little bit older, Picasso moved twice and was accepted into two fine art programs. However, he didn't care very much for the special techniques they taught and often wandered the streets by himself drawing the scenes around him. After moving to these two places, Picasso moved back home to Barcelona and decided that he would develop new techniques of art and painting based on what he saw.
    Later, Picasso decided to move to Paris, France, where he began perfecting his own techniques of painting, drawing and other forms of art. His drawings, paintings and art included pieces about sadness, poverty, classics and self-portraits. One of his major types of work is called cubism (立体派),which includes art with all sizes of geometric shapes together on the piece of art. This type of art is very important because no other artists had come up with the idea before. Picasso decided to try something new, and as a result, cubism is widely accepted today as a classic style of art.
    Picasso inspires us to be always thinking. He tells us to think outside the box and come up with fresh new ideas that can change the world. He surely plays an important role in the art field.
    24. What do we know about Picasso as a student at school?
    A. He shared a passion for his schoolwork.
    B. He was very proud of his paintings.
    C. He showed great talent for drawing.
    D. He was often praised by his teacher.
    25. What did Picasso's father do when he found Picasso's gift?
    A. He encouraged Picasso to do better at school.
    B. He felt angry at Picasso for his laziness.
    C. He asked Picasso to finish his work on time.
    D. He tried his best to help Picasso.
    26. What was Picasso's attitude towards the special techniques at that time?
    A. He show no interest in them. B. He thought highly of them.
    C. He was curious about them. D. He was concerned about them.
    27. What does the author tell us in the last two paragraphs?
    A. Picasso decided to go to Paris to sell his drawings.
    B. Picasso has greatly changed the world a lot.
    C. Picasso is a highly creative and influential artist.
    D. Picasso can do anything he wants to.
    C
    Since 1984, Philadelphia has been cleaning up its act. One by one, graffiti-covered walls are being changed into outdoor art. So far, more than 1,800 murals (壁画) have been painted. Philadelphia now has more murals than any other American city.
    The walls that were once ugly with graffiti (涂鸦) are now covered with beautiful pictures of historical heroes and modern art, thanks to the Mural Arts Program (MAP). Its work makes schools and public places attractive, and its citizens very proud. The program began as part of Philadelphia's Anti-Graffiti Network. Jane Golden is the MAP's artistic director. “When people ask me what our program is about,” she says, “I answer them with one word: hope”. Each year, the MAP offers youth art programs and workshops. Some one-time graffiti writers even help paint MAP murals.
    The MAP's work, says Golden, is all about developing a sense of community (社区). When a neighborhood requests a mural, the MAP works with the people there to develop a message. Some messages have been “Safe Streets”,“Love and Care”,and “Peace Walk”.
    The MAP receives up to 50 requests for murals each week. Last year, the workers painted 140 murals.
    “The making of a mural enters people's collective memory as an extraordinary, pleasant moment in neighborhood history.” says Golden, who began as a muralist in Los Angeles.
    28. What can be the best title for the text?
    A. Love, from Graffiti Writers to Muralists
    B. Hope, One Wall at a Time
    C. Jane, an Excellent Mural Artist
    D. MAP, a New Company in Philadelphia
    29. What is the Mural Arts Program in Philadelphia aimed at?
    A. Helping the young find jobs.
    B. Protecting the neighborhood.
    C. Fighting against graffiti.
    D. Attracting more visitors.
    30. How does the MAP decide on the message for a mural?
    A. By having discussions with people in the community.
    B. By seeking advice from the city government.
    C. By learning from the young graffiti writers.
    D. By studying the history of the city.
    31. Which of the following words best describes the work of the MAP?
    A. Difficult. B. Meaningless. C. Fruitless. D. Successful.
    D
    Micro-plastics have occupied almost every part of the planet today, including the most distant reaches---the Arctic(北极).
    The Arctic is far from clean, though it s rarely stepped in by visitors. Melanie Bergmann, a marine ecologist (海洋生态学家) and her colleagues had been studying plastics on the Arctic seafloor since 2002. In deep sea, they found about 6,0000 particles (微粒) in every 2.2 pounds of mud. In sea ice, there were as much as 12,000 pieces per 34 ounces of melted ice.
    Scientists measured micro-plastics in snow from this distant location and found a lot, which could only have caught rides on the wind. The study raises concerns about the pollution that micro-plastics brought to the air, bringing a health risk to people and animals that breathe them in. But they are less worried about the threat that breathed-in pollutants have to wildlife than about polluted snow going into water.
    The science on the health effects of micro-plastics is still going on. “For human health, we now know very little," says micro-plastics researcher Chelsea Rochman, “There is a lot of concern. For wildlife, we know that micro-plastics may go into every level of the food chain." Laboratory studies find some physical and chemical effects from micro-plastics, but the findings vary by the plastic type, shape and size. “There’s much more we need to do to clearly understand the effects.” he says, “ And further experiments will be carried out soon with use of equipment if financial support approves."
    Even worse is the threat from airborne micro-plastics in the area---too small to be noticed and may actually enter cells. Research on that also has been done and it could be a bigger problem, according to Rochman.
    32. How does the author develop his idea in Paragraph 2?
    A. By giving definition.
    B. By showing figures.
    C. By comparing experiments.
    D. By analyzing the reasons.
    33. What makes the scientists worry most?
    A. Wildlife breathing in micro-pollutants.
    B. Micro-plastics entering the water ecosystem .
    C. Human beings breathing micro-plastics in.
    D. Micro-plastics pollution worsening global warming.
    34. What’s the purpose of the author to write this passage?
    A. To introduce findings about micro-plastics in the Arctic.
    B. To give suggestions for environmental protection.
    C. To show measures to solve micro-plastics pollution.
    D. To tell us the damage of micro-plastics to health.
    35. In which section of a newspaper may this text be taken from?
    A. Technology. B. Health. C. Education. D. Science.
    第二节(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
    根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,选项中有两项为多余选项。
    How to stop technology addiction
    Research suggests that at least 64% of people now spend up to four hours daily of spare time in front of a screen. Just as TV watching has been linked to higher chances of being fat and getting diseases, this extra sedentary(久坐不动的) time is bad news for our health. 36
    Choose outdoor activities over technology
    When you’re at home, make it a rule that you can’t be online if the sun is shining. 37 Then, after taking these healthy physical activities, you can take out your phone or laptop, or take a seat at the computer. This rule should be fit for everyone in your family.
    Limit social media use
    According to some experts, the effect of technology on human relationships is worrying as technology has become a substitute for face-to-face human relationships. And social networks have changed computer and mobile use for people of all ages. 38 Avoid aimless browsing(浏览) and give your time online a purpose: research holidays or catch up on the news of the day. Then log off..
    39
    Challenge yourself to read at least 30 pages of a great book before you check your computer or mobile phone. Pick the right reading material and you’ll soon find you’ve discovered an enjoyable pastime.
    Create projects for yourself
    It’s amazing how much you can achieve when you’re not glued to(全神贯注地看) a screen. 40 Some suggestions are organizing the book shelf and cleaning your bedroom. Then try to do one each evening.
    A. Set aside reading time
    B. Choose the suitable reading materials
    C. Make a list of one-hour evening projects.
    D. Here are some ways to stop technology addiction.
    E. Whether it’s Wechat or QQ, limit the time online.
    F. The following are some ways to make better use of leisure time.
    G. Instead, you have to go for a walk, ride a bike, or swim at least an hour.
    第三部分 英语知识运用 (共两节,满分45分)
    第一节 (共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
    阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    My students were already talking about Christmas plans, even though it was only October. With each day passing , everyone became more 41 , waiting for the final school bell. As soon as the bell 42 , everyone would rush for their coats and go home, everyone except David.
    David was a small boy in ragged (破烂的) clothes. I had often 43 what kind of home life David had, and what kind of mother could send her son to school dressed in so 44 clothes for the cold winter months, without a coat, boots, or gloves. But something made David 45 . I can still remember he was always 46 a smile and ready to help. He always 47 after school to straighten chairs and mop the floor. We never talked much. After he finished cleaning , he would just simply smile and ask what else he could do, then 48 me for letting him stay and slowly 49 his home.
    Weeks passed and the 50 grew into restlessness with the coming Christmas until the 51 day of school before the holiday break. I smiled 52 when the last of them hurried out of the door. Turning around, I saw David 53 standing by my desk.
    “I have something for you,” he said and 54 a small box from behind his back. He 55 it to me and he said worriedly, “Open it.” I took the box from him, thanked him and slowly unwrapped (打开) it. I lifted the lid but to my 56 , nothing was there. I looked at David’s smiling face and looked back into the box and said, “The box is nice, David, but it’s 57 .”
    “Oh no, it isn’t,” said David. “It’s full of love. My mum told me before she died that love is something that you couldn’t see or touch unless you
    know it’s there.”
    Tears filled my eyes 58 I looked at the proud dirty face that I had seldom given 59 to. After that Christmas, David and I became good friends and I never forgot the 60 behind the little empty box that I put on my desk.
    41. A. peaceful
    B. anxious
    C. serious
    D. careful
    42. A. rang
    B. shouted
    C. called
    D. knocked
    43. A. thought
    B. learned
    C. realized
    D. wondered
    44. A. ugly
    B. unsuitable
    C. uncomfortable
    D. beautiful
    45. A. popular
    B. upset
    C. funny
    D. special
    46. A. expressing
    B. delivering
    C. wearing
    D. sharing
    47. A. practiced
    B. wandered
    C. stayed
    D. studied
    48. A. tell
    B. complain
    C. forgive
    D. thank
    49. A. clean up
    B. head for
    C. put up
    D. build up
    50. A. excitement
    B. argument
    C. movement
    D. judgment
    51. A. first
    B. last
    C. next
    D. following
    52. A. with relief
    B. with shame
    C. in surprise
    D. in shock
    53. A. weakly
    B. sadly
    C. helplessly
    D. quietly
    54. A. took out
    B. work out
    C. put out
    D. look out
    55. A. held
    B. picked
    C. handed
    D. left
    56. A. joy
    B. happiness
    C. surprise
    D. appreciation
    57. A. cheap
    B. expensive
    C. useful
    D. empty
    58. A. because
    B. until
    C. as
    D. though
    59. A. attention
    B. support
    C. advice
    D. command
    60. A. price
    B. meaning
    C. lesson
    D. friendship
    第 Ⅱ 卷(非选择题,共50分)
    注意事项:
    1.请用蓝黑钢笔或圆珠笔在第Ⅱ卷答题卡上作答,不能答在此试卷上。
    2.试卷中横线及框内注有“▲”的地方,是需要你在第Ⅱ卷答题卡上作答。

    第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
    第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文,按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求,在空格处填入一个适当的词或使用括号中词语的正确形式填空,并将答案填写在答题卡标号为61—70的相应位置上。
    Tree-climbing class takes root in Hubei
    Recently, a tree-climbing class is growing popular among students at the Sport Institute of Hubei University, with more and more people 61 (show) interest in learning the tricks of the trade for scaling timber.
    At a class on Monday, Lu Junpei, a PE teacher, showed 16 students some of 62 most important techniques. He put on a helmet, fastened straps and tied rope knots. 63 (eye) by all his students, Lu spent less than eight minutes reaching the top of a 25-meter tree. “Because many students are showing interest, the school plans to add more seats 64 the class to allow more students 65 (learn) and practice.” said Lu, 66 is also a member of the Enshi Blue Sky Rescue Team.
    Hubei University is one of the first 67 (university) in China to include courses on tree climbing. Teachers and students at the university 68 (win) two golds and two silvers at the Hong Kong Tree Climbing Championship in 2017. Tree-climbing is a slow activity. It’s not something you do quickly and then you’re on to the next thing or event. Now, people begin to miss the old days, so tree-climbing 69 (bring) into many other educational programs. It will be 70 (definite) helpful to make students away from online games and improve their health.
    61 ▲ 62 ▲ 63 ▲ 64 ▲ 65 ▲
    66 ▲ 67 ▲ 68 ▲ 69 ▲ 70 ▲
    第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
    第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
    假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
    增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(Λ),并在其下面写出该加的词。
    删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
    修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
    注意:1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
    2. 只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
    I am Zhou Kai. I am quite healthy and rarely did I get ill. That is why my family lives near the sea but we have fish about four times a week. My mother always cooks a lot of vegetables every day, making sure we eat healthy. Most of my friends enjoy eat sweets but I don’t have a sweet tooth. As a result, I am not overweight. I take a great deal of exercises, too. I’ll play the football for the Senior High Team tomorrow. I think it will be a difficult game because our team captain breaks his leg when playing last week. He felt awful when he told that there would be a month or more before she could play it again.
    第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
    假定你是李华,你的英国朋友Paul给你发来一封邮件,信中提及他学习之余特别喜欢运动。他很想知道你在运动方面的喜好及看法。请根据以下内容给他回一封邮件:
    1. 你最喜欢的运动;
    2. 你喜欢这项运动的原因;
    3. 你从这项运动中得到的益处。
    注意:1. 词数100左右;
    2. 可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
    3. 信的开头已给出,不计入总词数。
    Dear Paul,
    I am very glad that you can share with me about what your after-school life is like.

    Yours,
    Li Hua
    遂宁市高中2024届第一学期教学水平监测
    英语试题参考答案

    一、听力
    1-5 ACBCB 6-10 CAABC 11-15 BABCA 16-20 BCCBA
    二、阅读理解:
    21-23 DAB 24-27 CDAC 28-31 BCAD 32-35 BBAD 36-40 DGEAC
    三、完形填空
    41-45 BADBD 46-50 CCDBA 51-55 BADAC 56-60 CDCAB
    四、语法填空
    61.showing 62. the 63. Eyed 64.to 65.to learn
    66.who 67. universities 68.won 69. is brought 70. definitely
    五、短文改错
    I am Zhou Kai. I am quite healthy and rarely did I get ill. That is why my family lives near
    do because
    the sea but we have fish about four times a week. My mother cooks a lot of vegetables every day,
    and
    making sure we eat healthy. Most of my friends enjoy eat sweets but I don’t have a sweet tooth.
    healthily eating
    As a result, I am not overweight. I take a great deal of exercises, too. I’ll play the football for the
    exercise
    Senior High Team tomorrow. I think it will be a difficult game because our team captain breaks
    broke
    his leg when playing last week. He felt awful when he told that there would be a month or

    was
    more before she could play it again.
    he
    六、书面表达
    第二节 书面表达 (25分)
    一.评分原则
    1. 本题总分为25分,按5个档次给分。
    2. 评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
    3. 词数少于80和多于120的,从总分中减去2分。
    4. 评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
    5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
    6. 如书写交差以致影响交际,可将分数降低一个档次。
    二.内容要点认定及计分参考标准
    1. 恰当的开头并表达清楚自己最喜欢的运动(阐述清楚、表达正确,计5分)
    2. 喜欢这项运动的原因(陈述至少两点理由,阐述清楚、表达正确,计8分)
    3. 从这项运动中的获益(陈述两个方面的好处,阐述清楚、表达正确,计8分)
    4. 结尾和卷面书写(恰当的结尾,卷面整洁、书写工整,计4分)
    One Possible Version书面表达参考范文:(以下范文提供内容、结构参考,不作语言方面的评分参考)
    Dear Paul,
    I am very glad that you can share with me about what your after-school life is like. As for me, I am also an active sportsman.
    When it comes to my favourite sport, it must be basketball. Luckily, my father enjoys playing basketball and he began to teach me to play basketball when I was young. Entering the senior high school, I frequently play it with my classmates in our spare time.We always have a good time playing basketball together. Much to my happiness,I have made a lot of friends while playing it.Not only does playing basketball make me feel energetic, but also it helps me improve my confidence. More importantly, it enables me how to cooperate with others.
    Do you also like playing basketball? I am looking forward to receiving your next letter.
    Yours
    Li Hua



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