河南省濮阳市2021-2022学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试题（人教版）

这是一份河南省濮阳市2021-2022学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试题（人教版），文件包含河南省濮阳市2021-2022学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试题人教版docx、七年级期末考试人教版mp3等2份试卷配套教学资源，其中试卷共9页， 欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：
1. 本试卷共8页，六个大题，满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2. 本试卷上不要答题，请按答题卡上注意事项的要求直接把答案填写在答题卡上。答在试卷上的答案无效。
一、听力理解（20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
第一节
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. What des Allan like?
A. Sccer. B. Tennis. C. Basketball.
2. When is the by’s birthday?
A. In May. B. In August. C. In Nvember.
3. Hw much is the schlbag?
A. 20 dllars. B. 30 dllars. C. 40 dllars.
4. When is the music class?
A. On Mnday. B. On Wednesday. C. On Friday.
5. Where is Tm?
A. In the library. B. In his rm. C. In a stre.
第二节
听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
6. What clr is the English teacher’s T-shirt?
A. Brwn. B. Yellw. C. Green.
7. What’s the music teacher’s family name?
A. Miller. B. Smith. C. Black.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
8. What des the by want t d?
A. Play ping-png. B. Play baseball. C. Play vlleyball.
9. When will the speakers(说话人) d sprts?
A. On Saturday afternn.B. On Sunday mrning. C. On Sunday afternn.
听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. What is Wang Yu’s new schl like?
A. Small and nice. B. Tidy and big. C. Nice and big.
11. What des Wang Yu like?
A. Sccer. B. Ftball. C. Basketball.
12. What’s Wang Yu’s telephne number?
A. 384-926.B. 348-296. C. 843-629.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。
13. Wh can play vlleyball?
A. Linda. B. Alice. C. Mike.
14. What is in Linda’s schlbag?
A. A ping-png bat. B. A baseball bat. C. A ping-png ball.
15. What des Mike ask Alice t d?
A. Call Linda. B. E-mail Linda. C. Thank Linda.
第三节
听下面一篇短文。按照所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。

A B C D E
16. _______ 17. _______ 18._______ 19._______ 20. _______
二、阅读理解（20小题，每小题2分，共40分）
阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。
A
Welcme t Martin’s 12th Birthday Party
Fd: A big birthday cake!
Fruit, ice cream and pizza. Drinks like tea, cffee and juice.
Date: Saturday, March 12
Time: 2:30 p.m.－6:00 p.m.
Place: Martin’s hme (580 Spring Street)
Dn’t yu knw the way t(到……的路) Martin’s hme? Just call Martin at 678-886
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
21. If (如果) yu g t the party, yu can’t eat .
A. cakeB. pizzaC. hamburgersD. ice cream
22. We can knw that March 14 is .
A. SundayB. FridayC. MndayD. Tuesday
23. If yu dn’t knw the way t Martin’s hme, yu can .
A. call himB. email himC. call his mtherD. email his mther
24. After reading the passage (文章), we dn’t knw .
A. the time f the partyB. the price f the cake
C. Martin’s phne numberD. the date f the party
25. Which f the fllwing is TRUE(正确的) accrding t the passage?
A. We can’t drink cffee at the party.B. Martin lives(居住) n Spring Street.
C. The party lasts(持续) fr 4.5 hurs.D. Martin is 14 this year.
B
Nvember is really interesting. We have sme fun things in ur schl this mnth. Let’s lk at sme f them!
Bk Sale
On Nvember 3rd, we have a bk sale in the schl library. Students can sell ld bks t their classmates and teachers. We can buy nice and cheap bks.
Sprts Day
We all knw ding sprts is gd fr ur health. S there is a Sprts Day in ur schl n Nvember 10th. We can play basketball, tennis, ping-png and sccer n that day. I think we can have a gd time.
Art Festival
The art festival is n Nvember 20th. I’m s happy abut it. I can play the pian(钢琴). I like it. D yu like it?
Schl Trip
On the last day f this mnth, we have a schl trip. We g t a great park with the students and teachers. It’s really interesting.
根据材料内容,选择最佳答案。
26. What can students d n Nvember 3rd?
A. Sell ld bks.B. Play basketball.
C. Play the pian.D. Play sccer.
27. We have a Sprts Day in ur schl because .
A. we are gd at sprtsB. we dn’t like sprts
C. ding sprts is gd fr ur healthD. sprts are bring
28. When is the schl trip?
A. On Nvember 3rd. B. On Nvember 10th.
C. On Nvember 31st.D. On Nvember 30th.
29. Where d we g fr the schl trip?
A. T a schl.B. T the schl library.
C. T a great park.D. T a stre.
30. We dn’t have in Nvember.
A. an art festivalB. an English Day
C. a schl tripD. a bk sale
C
Sam William likes eating fish very much. He ften buys fish in the shp and takes them hme. One day his wife sees the fish and thinks,“Gd! Nw, I can ask my friends t have lunch and we can eat the fish. They like fish very much. ”
When Sam cmes hme frm wrk in the evening，the fish is nt there and his wife says，“Oh，yur cat eats it.”And then she gives him sme bread fr his supper. Sam is angry. He takes the cat and his wife t a shp near his huse and weighs（称）the cat. Then he turns t his wife and says，“My fish weighs ne kil. The cat weighs ne kil，t. My cat is here, yu see, then, where is my fish？”
根据材料内容,选择最佳答案。
31. eats the fish.
A. Mr. William B. Mrs. William and His friends
C. The cat D. His friends
32. What des Mrs. William d with the fish？
A. She eats the fish befre Sam cmes back.
B. She cks the fish fr Sam.
C. She puts the fish in the fridge(冰箱)and waits fr her husband.
D. She asks her friends t cme t eat the fish with her.
33. Mr. William weighs in the shp with his wife.
A. the fish B. the cat C. his wife D. his friend
34. Hw much fish des Sam ften buy？
A. ne kil B. tw kils C. three kils D. fur kils
35. Sam likes very much.
A. cat B. his wife C. fish D. his friends
D
Tm is an English by. Nw he is in Beijing with his parents and his tw sisters. 36._______ Then he ges t schl at 7:30. His first class starts(开始) at 8:00. In the mrning he has fur classes and in the afternn he has tw classes. The classes finish at 4:30 p.m. 37._______ At schl Tm's favrite subject is music，His best friend is Alice. Alice is nt frm England, 38._______ Her Chinese name is Lu Ziyi. 39._______ Why des Tm like Alice？40._______ They like music and they like blue and white. 根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项，使短文意思通顺，内容完整。
三、完形填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
Hi, everyne! Let me intrduce(介绍)a girl t yu. Her name is Gina. She is 41 years ld. She is in N.3 Middle Schl. She is 42 Class Eight, Grade Seven. She lives in Beijing. Beijing is very nice 43 clean. Gina is a beautiful girl. She 44 a rund face, like 45 apple. Her pen name is 46 , t. She has tw small black eyes and a small nse, 47 she’s tall(高的). 48 hair is shrt and black. Her favrite 49 is light green. Her favrite 50 is swimming. She wants 51 a swimming star when she grws up. There are 52 peple in her family. They are her mther, her father, her little sister and 53 . Her mther and her 54 are dctrs. She likes her 55 very much. She feels very happy.
41. A. threeB. thirteen C. thirtyD. thirty-three
42. A. nB. at C. inD. f
43. A. butB. r C. andD. als
44. A. getsB. has C. is D. likes
45. A. a B. theC. an D. /
46. A. Pear B. OrangeC. BananaD. Apple
47. A. but B. rC. and D. /
48. A. HerB. HisC. HersD. It’s
49. A. sprtB. clthes C. fruitD. clr
50. A. bk B. subject C. music D. sprt
51. A. is B. areC. be D. t be
52. A. twB. three C. fur D. five
53. A. herB. me C. himD. it
54. A. sister B. father C. grandfather D. grandmther
55. A. familyB. grandmther C. brtherD. mther
四、语篇填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
第一节：阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。
dinner class s sprt he but like friend happy egg
Dear Mm and Dad,
Hw are yu these days？I miss yu very much．I’m 56 in America．I eat healthy fd every day．Fr breakfast, I have 57 and milk．Fr lunch, I eat vegetables and fruit salad．Fr 58 , I have chicken and milk． 59 I am very healthy nw．I have a new 60 here．His name is Jack．He is 10．We are in the same 61 ．Jack has many gd habits．He 62 fruit, vegetables and chicken．But he desn’t like fast fd．He thinks it is nt healthy．He als likes 63 , and basketball is 64 favrite sprt． 65 smetimes we play ping-png after schl．
Yurs,
Chen Xi
第二节：阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
Hell！Hw 66 yu？My name is Lisa Miller．Lisa is my first name， 67 Miller is my last name．I am in Shanghai，China nw．My favrite clr is blue．My favrite number is six．My phne number is 6654－9812．I have a gd friend 68 my class．His name is David．He likes blue，t．His favrite number is three．Lk！He has three pens，three pencils and three cups．What is his phne number？ 69 is 8082－9168． 70 yu have a gd friend？Can yu tell me his/her name and phne number?
五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A：Gd mrning，sir．71. ？
B：Yes，please．I want t get a schlbag fr my daughter．
A：72. ？
B：Oh，n！My daughter desn't like black．
A：73. ？
B：She likes white．
A：Hw abut this white ne？It is n sale tday．
B：Very nice. 74. ？
A：45 yuan．
B：OK，I'll take it．
A：75. ．
B：Thank yu．
A：Yu're welcme．

六、书面表达（20分）
最近学校在评选“你心目中最喜欢的教师”。请你以“ My favrite teacher. ”为题，根据以下提示、要点及要求，用英语写一篇短文，参加学校的英语评选活动。
提示词：favrite, teacher, helpful, care
1. 要点:1）你最喜欢的老师是谁；
2）你一周中哪天上他/她的课；
3）你为什么认为他/她是你最喜欢的老师？
2.要求:1）文中不要出现所在学校的校名和师生姓名；
2）词数80左右。
My favrite teacher.


___________________________________________________________________________
A. She is a small TV star.
B. She is a Chinese girl.
C. Every mrning he has breakfast at 7：00.
D. Because they like the same things.
E. After that，he always plays sccer with his classmates fr an hur.
七 年 级 期 末 考 试
英语（人教版）参考答案
一、听力理解（20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
1-5 ACBCA6-10 ABBCC11-15 BBCAA16-20 BACED
二、阅读理解（20小题，每小题2分，共40分）
21-25 CCABB 26-30 ACDCB 31-35 BDBAC 36-40 CEBAD
三、完形填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
41-45 BCCBC 46-50 DAADD 51-55 DCABA
四、语篇填空 （15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
56. happy 57. eggs 58. dinner 59. S 60. friend
61. class 62. likes 63. sprts 64. his 65. But
66. are 67. and 68. in 69. It 70. D
五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
71. Can I help yu
72. What/Hw abut this black ne
73. What clr des she like
74. Hw much is it
75. Here yu are
六、书面表达（20分）
评分标准
1. 第1-20题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
2. 第21-40题，每小题2分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
3. 第41-55题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
4. 第56-70题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
5. 第71-75题，每小题2分。句中大小写错误，每两个扣0.5分。单词拼写错误，每两个扣1分。答案不惟一。如果考生写出的句子符合英语表达习惯，且上下文意思连贯，无错误，应当给分。
6. 书面表达，20分。
1)评分原则
(1) 本题总分为20分，按4个档次给分。
(2) 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
(3) 词数少于70和多于100的，从总分中减去2分。
(4) 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
(5) 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(6) 如书写较差以至影响交际，将其分数降低一个档次。
2) 各档次的给分范围和要求
七年级期末考试英语（人教版）录音材料
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. W: Allan, d yu have a tennis ball?
M: N. I dn't. But I have three sccer balls. I like playing sccer.
2. W: My birthday is n August 10th. What abut yu?
M: My birthday is n the first day f Nvember.
3. W: Yur schlbag lks nice. Hw much is it?
M: It is 30 dllars. I like it very much.
4. W: When is ur PE class?
M: It's n Friday. It is my favrite day because in the afternn we have a music class, t.
5. W: Where is Tm? D yu knw?
M: Yes. He is in the library. He always ges there after schl.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
W: Tny, is that man in a yellw T-shirt yur English teacher?
M: N, he is my music teacher. The ne in a brwn T-shirt is my English teacher.
W: Well, what's yur music teacher's name?
M: David Smith.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
W: I'm free this Sunday. Let’s d sme sprts in ur schl.
M: Sunds gd. I get a new baseball bat, s I want t play baseball.
W: OK. What time d we meet in ur schl?
M: Let's meet at 3: 30 pm.
听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12三个小题。
Hell, everyne, my name is Wang Yu. I’m a student in a new schl nw. The schl is nice and big. I have new classmates, new teachers and new friends here. My English name is Henry. I like music and ftball a lt. My telephne number is three fur eight tw nine six.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15三个小题。
W: Let's play ping-png after class, Mike.
M: I can't play ping-png, Alice. I can play vlleyball.
W: Wh can play ping-png in ur class?
M: I think Linda can. I always see a ping-png bat in her schlbag.
W: Where is she nw?
M: I dn't knw. Yu can call her.
第三节听下面一篇短文。按照所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。
Here is a pht f my family. These are my grandpa and grandma. This is my mther. She is a teacher in a middle schl. That is my father. He has gd eating habits and cats an apple every day. The girl in blue is my sister. She is 12. She likes ping-png. She has tw ping-png balls and fur ping-png bats. This is me. My favrite subject is gegraphy. My gegraphy teacher is great fun.
第四档
完成了试题规定的任务。
覆盖所有内容要点。
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
16～20
第三档
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
11～15分
第二档
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
6～10分
第一档
未完成试题规定的任务。
明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
1～5分
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。