2021-2022学年人教版八年级上学期期末检测卷英语试卷(word版 含答案)
展开2021~2022学年度八年级上学期期末检测卷
英 语 试 卷
注意事项:总分120分,考试时间120分钟。
一、听力理解(20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
第一节
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
( )1.What was the weather like last week?
A.It was snowy. B.It was rainy. C.It was sunny.
( )2.Where is Mrs. Brown?
A.In the bedroom. B.In the kitchen. C.In the washroom.
( )3.Who sits next to the girl?
A.Amy. B.John. C.Mr. Black.
( )4.What’s the girl going to do this afternoon?
A.To cheer her brother on.
B.To go to a movie with Tom.
C.To do her homework at home.
( )5.What did the boy do just now?
A. B. C.
第二节
听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6至第7两个小题。
( )6.What’s wrong with the boy?
A.He has a cold. B.He has a stomachache. C.He has a sore back.
( )7.What did the doctor tell the boy to do?
A.To take some medicine and have a rest.
B.To drink more water and have a good rest.
C.To take some medicine and do more exercise.
听下面一段对话,回答第8至第9两个小题。
( )8.How often does the boy run?
A.Every day. B.Twice a week. C.Once a week.
( )9.What does the boy advise the girl to do?
A.To go running with him.
B.To swim in her free time.
C.To stop reading novels in bed.
听下面一段独白,回答第10至第12三个小题。
( )10.What does the speaker think of rock music?
A.Exciting. B.Cool. C.Noisy.
( )11.How many people are there in the speaker’s family?
A.Three. B.Four. C.Five.
( )12.What kind of music does the speaker’s father like?
A.Classical music. B.Pop music. C.Country music.
听下面一段对话,回答第13至第15三个小题。
( )13.What does the boy want to do this Sunday?
A.To play tennis. B.To have a picnic. C.To climb mountains.
( )14.Who has a farm?
A.Mary’s uncle. B.Helen’s uncle. C.Li Ming’s father.
( )15.How will the girl go to the farm?
A.By bus. B.By bike. C.By car.
第三节
听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。
A B C D E
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
二、阅读理解(20小题,每小题2分,共40分)
阅读下面四篇语言材料,然后按文后要求做题。
A
Here are some clubs for your children. Come and choose one.
Kids Craft Club For kids aged 6-13 4:00 p.m.-5:00 p.m. 69 Green Street On the first Saturday of each month Learn hand sewing skills, make friends and have fun For more information: 435-843-2242 | The Library—Kids’ Book Club For kids aged 8-12 Choose your own books to read from the city library! Fun activities! 4:00 p.m.-5:30 p.m. We have meetings on the second Tuesday of every month Tel:413-594-1800 |
Youth Sports Club For kids aged over 9 $2 a week Come and join us! Here are many different sports: football, basketball, handball, baseball and many more Every weekday from 2nd September, 6:00 p.m.-8:00 p.m. Sunshine Middle School Tel:452-278-8135 | Kids Art Club For kids aged 4-8 Monday -Friday 3:15 p.m.-4:15 p.m. or 4:30 p.m.-5:30 p.m. $5 each class 54 South Street For more information, call Kendel at 407-192-2541 |
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
( )21.How often do kids in the craft club meet?
A.Once a week.
B.Once a month.
C.Every weekday.
D.Every Saturday and Sunday.
( )22.How long do kids in the book club meet at a time?
A.For 45 minutes. B.For 1 hour.
C.For 1.5 hours. D.For 2 hours.
( )23.How much does one need to pay for his five classes in the art club?
A.$2. B.$5. C.$10. D.$25.
( )24.How many clubs can a 10-year-old boy choose?
A.One. B.Two. C.Three. D.Four.
( )25.Who is the text written for?
A.Teachers. B.Doctors. C.Parents. D.Children.
B
Most parents love the Internet and want their kids to use it. But a new study shows many parents are also afraid of the online world. They worry that their kids will get in trouble with people they meet online.
The study was done online from May 5th to May 10th by Insight Research Group. It says 80% of parents are worried about kids meeting bad people online. That’s because young people who have grown up with the Internet think of it as a way of showing personal feelings. To young people, the benefits of giving out some personal information to online friends outweigh the risks. And the study shows that 78% of them have a personal website or blog.
Parents also learn the importance of the Internet. The survey shows 91% think the Internet helps their children show their feelings, and 77% think the Internet is one of the most useful education tools that children have. But 88% think it’s important to know what their kids are doing online. Findings show both parents and children need more education about using the Internet.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
( )26.How do many parents feel about the online world?
A.Stupid. B.Unfriendly. C.Happy. D.Worried.
( )27.What do young people use the Internet to do?
A.They use it to study on the Internet.
B.They use it to watch movies online.
C.They use it to go shopping online.
D.They use it to show their personal feelings.
( )28.What does the underlined word “outweigh” mean in Chinese?
A.弱于 B.理解 C.重于 D.认为
( )29.Which of the following is TRUE?
A.The study lasted for 6 days.
B.The study studied teachers and students.
C.90% of young people have a personal blog.
D.77% of parents think the Internet is helpful for children to show their feelings.
( )30.What is the best title of the passage?
A.Young people’s blog B.The use of the Internet
C.A study about the Internet D.Parents’ worries about the Internet
C
Back when the birds were first learning how to live, Blackbird came to visit Magpie.
“What are you building?” asked Blackbird.
“I’m making my nest to raise my kids,” said Magpie.
Blackbird flew through the forests and flew over the fields. “Come and see the great nest that Magpie is making,” she told the other birds all about it. Soon, they all sat in the sticks, watching Magpie build her nest.
First, Magpie went to collect some mud. She began to make it into a small bowl.
“Now I see how a nest is made,” said Thrush, flying off to build a mud nest of her own.
Then, Magpie collected small sticks and put them into the mud nest.
“I think this is an amazing nest to live in,” shouted Blackbird. She flew off and made her nest of mud and sticks.
Magpie made many more trips, collecting mud. At last, the inside of her nest was covered with mud.
“That will be strong enough for us bigger birds,” said Owl. She went back to make her nest.
Magpie tried to rest in her nest for a while but felt uncomfortable. So she took some feathers to make her nest comfortable.
On that day, each bird made its own nest, but none made a nest as fine as that of Magpie’s.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
( )31.Put the events about building Magpie’s nest in the correct order.
a.She took some feathers to make her nest comfortable.
b.Magpie collected small sticks and put them into the mud nest.
c.Magpie went to collect some mud.
d.Magpie made many more trips, collecting mud.
A.b-a-c-d B.d-a-c-b C.c-b-d-a D.c-d-b-a
( )32.Which of the following is TRUE?
A.Blackbird learned to make a nest by herself.
B.Owl learned how to make a strong nest for bigger birds by watching Magpie.
C.Thrush waited until Magpie finished the nest.
D.Magpie didn’t show the ways of making a nest to other birds.
( )33.What does the underlined word “it” refer to?
A.A tree. B.A bird.
C.A stick. D.Some mud.
( )34.Which of the following words best describe Magpie?
A.Helpless and serious. B.Friendly but lazy.
C.Hard-working and smart. D.Kind and outgoing.
( )35.Where is the text most probably from?
A.A movie poster. B.A storybook.
C.A geography book. D.A science newspaper.
D
Everybody knows the danger of fire. It’s useful for a family to learn how to prepare for a fire. Here are some suggestions.
Put a smoke alarm in the house. When there is a fire,the alarm makes a loud sound. 36 Make a plan to leave the house ahead of time. Make sure everyone knows all the ways out of the house. 37 Check all the windows to make sure they can be opened easily.
Keep fire extinguishers in the house. Everyone in the family should know how to use them.
38 Family should do fire drills often so that they know what to do when a fire happens. Everyone in the family should know the following fire rules.
Don’t open a hot door! 39 Stay close to the floor! Smoke can be more dangerous than fire. The best air is near the floor because smoke rises.
40 First, stop! Don’t run! Drop! Fall to the floor. Turning over and over will make the fire go out. Put some wet clothes around you to keep away from the fire.
根据材料内容,从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项,使文章意思通顺、内容完整。
A.Do fire drills often.
B.The sound tells everyone to leave the house at once.
C.The fire can grow more quickly if you open the door.
D.If there is a fire, everyone follows the plan to get out.
E.What can you do if your hair or clothes start to burn?
36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
三、完形填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
先通读短文,掌握其大意,然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
Creativity is one of the most important human talents. Without creativity, there would be 41 progress. 42 , as early as tens of years ago, we made great progress in many areas.
Let 43 take the progress of China’s movie industry as an example.When I was in primary school, the most popular movie of the year was 44 a foreign one. People were interested in the 45 action, the cool special experiences and the creative stories. 46 Chinese movies were not popular. Although there were famous actors in the movies, the stories were 47 .
Chinese movie-makers knew this 48 many years ago. Although it was difficult, Chinese movie-makers 49 great progress.
Finally, in 2019, the film The Wandering Earth hit theaters. It was pretty 50 in China and, later, the world. It was the first time I 51 excited to see a Chinese movie. I saw 52 . At last, The Wandering Earth made 53 than 3.3 billion yuan at the global box office. This success was not a 54 to me. It showed the creativity of Chinese movie-makers.
The rise of the movie industry is only a(n) 55 of the great progress that China made. I believe China’s future will be brighter with our creativity.
( )41.A.great B.little C.large D.excited
( )42.A.Certainly B.Happily C.Finally D.Carefully
( )43.A.them B.it C.him D.me
( )44.A.never B.often C.always D.seldom
( )45.A.sad B.clear C.exciting D.mad
( )46.A.As B.But C.So D.Or
( )47.A.boring B.interesting C.famous D.different
( )48.A.way B.story C.problem D.meeting
( )49.A.kept B.made C.practiced D.stopped
( )50.A.successful B.useful C.important D.dangerous
( )51.A.appeared B.felt C.looked D.served
( )52.A.answers B.hope C.risk D.questions
( )53.A.higher B.better C.more D.worse
( )54.A.surprise B.meal C.trick D.plan
( )55.A.example B.lesson C.end D.mind
四、语篇填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
第一节
阅读短文,从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空,使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词,每词限用一次。
much always train possible play what watch he hundred busy |
Now, our life becomes better and better. 56 will the future be like? Let’s talk about it.
The free Internet
The Internet 57 a very important part in our life now. A report says that there are fewer people 58 TV than before. Many people are using the Internet though it isn’t free now. However, it is 59 that the Internet will be free for everyone in the near future.
Self-driving cars
Many engineers are 60 with inventing self-driving cars now. Self-driving cars will be everywhere in the future! The driver only needs to tell 61 car where he wants to go and the car will know the way.
The intercontinental railways
Do you think it is possible to take a 62 from Shanghai and arrive in New York in a few hours? The Intercontinental Railway Project will make it. And we will see 63 of Intercontinental railways in the future.
People will live on Mars
There will be 64 pollution on the earth in the future and the environment will be in great danger. People are 65 trying to look for the next “earth”. Maybe we can move to Mars and live there one day.
56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
61. 62. 63. 64. 65.
第二节
阅读短文,根据语篇要求填空,使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
Lin is going to study in New York next month. He is so excited about his first time going to New York. He wants to be a doctor 66 he grows up. So he is going to learn medicine. 67 his parents are a little worried. They think the food in New York is different 68 Chinese food. Lin can’t cook, either. What’s more, Lin was in hospital last month because of the stomachache. However, Lin says, “I can look after 69 . I’m going to call you every day and send you photos. At the same time, I plan 70 write down the interesting things that happen to me every day. I can also improve my English in New York.” After knowing his plan, his parents don’t worry about him any more and hope he can do anything he wants.
66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
五、补全对话(5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
根据下面的对话情景,在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子,使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A:Hello! May I speak to Jack?
B:This is Jack speaking. 71. ?
A:Hi, Jack! This is Mary. Where did you go last weekend?
B:A typhoon struck my city. 72. .
A:Did it do a lot of harm?
B:73. . The wind was strong and the rain was heavy. Some houses fell down and a few people died.
A:74. . Did you hurt?
B:No, I didn’t. I’m fine. What did you do last weekend?
A:I read my favorite books. 75. ?
B:The weather is fine now. The wind dies down now and the rain also stops.
六、书面表达(20分)
种类丰富、多姿多彩的野生动植物维系着全球生态平衡,但随着人类社会的发展,许多物种的生存空间被压缩,生存环境遭到了破坏。请以“ is important” 为题,并根据要点和要求,用英语写一篇短文。
1.要点:1)你认为维护生态平衡重要的一项措施是什么;
2)你为什么觉得它很重要;
3)你认为我们应该怎么做。
2.要求:1)文中不得出现真实姓名和学校名称;
2)词数100左右。
is important
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2021~2022学年度八年级上学期期末检测卷(六)
英语试卷参考答案
一、听力理解(20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
1~5 ABCAB 6~10 ABABA 11~15 CCABC 16~20 EABDC
二、阅读理解(20小题,每小题2分,共40分)
21~25 BCDCC 26~30 DDCAC 31~35 CBDCB 36~40 BDACE
三、完形填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
41~45 BBDCC 46~50 BACBA 51~55 BBCAA
四、语篇填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
56.What 57.plays 58.watching 59.possible 60.busy
61.his 62.train 63.hundreds 64.more 65.always
66.when 67.But 68.from 69.myself 70.to
五、补全对话(5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
71.Who is that (speaking)/...
72.So I had to stay at home/I didn’t go out/I didn’t go anywhere/...
73.Yes, it did/Yes/Of course/Sure/...
74.I’m sorry to hear that/That’s terrible/...
75.How is the weather in your city now/What is the weather like in your city now/...
六、书面表达(20分)
One Possible Version:
Planting trees is important
Planting trees is important to us because more and more forests are disappearing around the world every year. As we know, trees are very useful to us. They can keep the water clean and help to make the air fresher. They can cool the air and make our cities less noisy. Trees can prevent the climate from getting warmer and warmer. They can also help to keep the beauty of nature.
Now it’s time for us to do something for them. We shouldn’t destroy the trees around us. What’s more, we can try to plant some trees and take good care of them.
评分标准
1.第1-20题,每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
2.第21-40题,每小题2分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
3.第41-55题,每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
4.第56-70题,每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
5.第71-75题,每小题2分。句中大小写错误,每两个扣0.5分。单词拼写错误,每两个扣1分。答案不唯一。如果考生写出的句子符合英语表达习惯,且上下文意思连贯,表达无误,应当给分。
6.书面表达,20分。
(1)评分原则
①本题总分为20分,按4个档次给分。
②评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
③词数少于80或多于120的,从总分中减去2分。
④评分时,应注意的主要内容为内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
⑤拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
⑥如书写较差以致影响交际,将其分数降低一个档次。
(2)各档次的给分范围和要求:
第四档 16-20分 | 完成了试题规定的任务 ●覆盖所有内容要点 ●应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求 ●语法结构和词汇应用基本正确,些许错误主要是因为尝试较复杂语法结构和词汇所致 ●有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑 达到了预期的写作目的 |
第三档 11-15分 | 基本完成了试题规定的任务 ●虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖主要内容 ●应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的基本要求 ●有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解 ●应用了简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯 整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的 |
第二档 6-10分 | 未恰当完成试题规定的任务 ●漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容 ●语法结构单调,应用的词汇有限 ●有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解 ●较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性 信息未能清楚地传达给读者 |
第一档 1-5分 | 未完成试题规定的任务 ●明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求 ●语法结构单调,应用的词汇有限 ●较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解 ●缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯 信息未能传达给读者 |
0分 | 未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判;写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清 |
听力部分录音稿
一、听力理解
第一节
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1.W:Hi, Bob! You look unhappy. What’s the matter?
M:Many sheep on my farm lost their lives because of the snowstorm last week.
2.W:May I speak to Mrs. Brown?
M:Hold the line, please. She is cooking in the kitchen now.
3.M:Would you mind if I sit next to you, Jane?
W:I’m sorry, John. But Mr. Black sits here.
4.M:Hello, Betty. Would you like to go to a movie with me this afternoon?
W:I’m sorry, Tom. But I have no time.
M:Do you have much homework today?
W:No. My brother will take part in a race and I’ll cheer him on.
5.M:Did you watch the news on TV just now?
W:No. Is there anything important?
M:Yes. There will be a typhoon next week.
W:Oh, really? We should prepare for it.
第二节
听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6至第7两个小题。
M:Good morning, Doctor Wang!
W:Good morning! What’s wrong with you?
M:I have a headache and a cough.
W:How long have you been like this?
M:From yesterday.
W:Let me take your temperature. Oh, it’s a little high.
M:Is it serious? Do I need to take some medicine?
W:No. It’s just a cold. Drink more water and have a good rest. You’ll be better soon.
M:Thank you.
听下面一段对话,回答第8至第9两个小题。
W:You look very healthy. Do you often do sports, John?
M:Yes. I run for thirty minutes every morning and play basketball twice a week. What sports do you like, Kate?
W:I’m not fond of sports. I just like lying in bed and reading novels.
M:Oh, it’s bad for your health. You can swim when you are free. Many girls like it.
W:OK. I’ll have a try. Thanks for your advice.
听下面一段独白,回答第10至第12三个小题。
Music is important in our everyday life, and different people like different music. I like rock music best because I think it’s exciting. But my mother hates rock music. She thinks it’s too noisy. She prefers classical music. My sister Amy’s favorite is pop music while my brother Mike likes jazz best. What about my father? He enjoys listening to country music best.
听下面一段对话,回答第13至第15三个小题。
M:Hi, Helen. Tom and I are going to play tennis this Sunday. Would you like to join us?
W:I’m sorry, Li Ming. My dad will take us to my uncle’s farm. Why don’t you ask Mary? She may have time.
M:OK. By the way, will you go to the farm by bus or by bike?
W:My father will drive his car.
M:Have a good time.
W:You, too.
第三节
听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。
Last Sunday I was very busy. I got up at 7:00 in the morning. I spent about two hours doing my homework. Then I had my piano lesson with Li Hong from 10:00 to 12:00. My parents were too busy to clean the house last week, so in the afternoon, I did it. When I was cleaning the floor, my parents got back. Then I helped my mother do the cooking. After dinner, I walked the dog in our community. When I went to bed, I felt very tired. What a busy day!
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