湖南省湖湘大联考2021-2022学年高二上学期10月大联考 英语 含答案

大联考·2021年10月高二联考

英语

注意事项：

1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分150分，考试时间120分钟。

2.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在本试卷和答题卡上。

3.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应的答案标号涂黑，如有改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案；回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。

4.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。

第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)

第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. When may the man donate money?

A. Now.      B. Tonight.      C. Tomorrow.

2. How does the woman expect the match to be?

A. Thrilling.      B. Boring.      C. Fair.

3. What are the speakers want to do?

A. Help someone to take a photo.

B. Choose a place to take a photo.

C. Find someone to take their photo.

4. Why will the woman do a part-time job?

A. To support the man's company.

B. To prepare for her future career.

C. To earn some money for her fee.

5. What will the woman do after the dialogue?

A. Buy the man a book.      B. Meet Yi Zhongtian.      C. Sign a book.

第二节(共15小题，每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6. What are the speakers talking about?

A. Ways to associate with old friends.

B. Why old friends need to contact.

C. Connecting with old friends again.

7. Why do old friends lose touch according to the speakers?

A. They have been separated.

B. They can't write to each other.

C. They have no time for the touch.

听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。

8. When will the man leave the hospital?

A. Tomorrow.      B. A week later.      C. Two days later.

9. What does the man thank the woman for?

A. Paying for him.       B. Caring about him.      C. Worrying about him.

听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。

10. What causes the man's tiredness?

A. Staying up last night.   B. Playing with his net pal long.  C. Getting up early in the morning.

11. What do the man and his net pal have in common?

A. They both study hard.      B. They both love touring.      C. They both like playing.

12. How does the man find the cyber?

A. A place full of lies.       B. A place worth trusting.      C. A place to test people.

听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。

13. What makes Nana late?

A. Later start.       B. Traffic jam.      C. Bad weather.

14. Why are motorists driving slowly?

A. To ensure safety.      B. To show their care.      C. To avoid being stuck.

15. What results from a car accident?

A. Blocked traffic.       B. More car accidents.       C. Many damaged cars.

16. How will the woman go to work when it turns warmer?

A. On foot.      B. By bike.      C. By subway.

听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17. What did the speaker do to attend the last event?

A. He wore hair products.      B. He bought new clothes.      C. He made no preparation.

18. Why does the speaker seldom dress up before attending an event?

A. He isn't good at it.      B. He wants to save time.      C. He is confident of himself.

19. How does the speaker feel about his thick curly hair?

A. He ignores it.      B. He dislikes it.      C. He is proud of it.

20. What is the speaker like according to the monologue?

A. He cares too much about his appearance.

B. He likes showing others how to make up.

C. He focuses on what he thinks necessary.

第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)

第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C、和D)中，选出最佳选项。

A

Four Truly Unique Canadian Camping Experiences

Mount Robson Provincial Park, British Columbia

Named after the highest mountain in the Canadian Rockies, this park gives you breathtaking views of mountain landscapes along with lakes, waterfalls, canyons, and caves. The Berg Lake campground is located right at the northern base of the 3, 954-meter peak(山巅), which is about a day's hike in.

Fundy National Park, New Brunswick

If you've grown tired of the tent or RV, this park is one of the few national parks offering yurt(蒙古包)rentals. Make sure you visit the Bay of Fundy where the world's highest tides make for some great surfing. You also can't miss the amazing Acadian forest waterfalls. If you're looking for even more entertainment, the park also hosts music and cultural festivals each summer and has its own golf course.

Kluane National Park and Reserve, Yukon

From May to September, the Kathleen Lake campground sees visitors come from far and wide to camp, hike and fish. Mountaineering is especially popular as Kluane is home to 17 of Canada's 20 highest peaks. Flightseeing over the park's glaciers and rafting(漂流)the winding Alsek River will also keep you out enjoying the wilderness.

Prince Edward Island National Park, Prince Edward Island

If you're looking for a family-friendly park, this one is wonderful. Between the seven beaches and more than 50 kilometers of hiking and cycling trails, you'll certainly be kept busy. Literature lovers, you can see what inspired L. M. Montgomery's Anne o f Green Gables at the nearby Green Gables Heritage Place and even explore the original house.

21. Where is the park offering yurt rentals located?

A. In British Columbia.      B. In New Brunswick.

C. In Yukon.               D. In Prince Edward Island.

22. What can you do in Kluane National Park and Reserve?

A. Climb the highest mountain in Canada.      B. Experience the highest tides.

C. Raft the winding Alsek River.              D. Attend music and cultural festivals.

23. Which will you choose if you are a fan of Anne of Green Gables?

A. Mount Robson Provincial Park.         B. Fundy National Park.

C. Kluane National Park and Reserve.      D. Prince Edward Island National Park.

B

A young female athlete in the Philippines recently won many gold medals during a sports meet despite not having proper running shoes. Rhea Ballos, an 11-year-old student of Salvacion Elementary School in Balasan, Iloilo, was only wearing bandages around her feet when she competed at the Iloilo Schools Sports Meet.

Facebook user Valenzuela posted pictures of the girl with her feet wrapped in bandages bearing the famous Nike logo. Ballos even wrote the word "NIKE" on the sides of her "shoes" to complete the "Nike running shoes" look. The bandages were tightly wrapped around her feet, creating a thin protective layer against the track. While she was actually barefoot during the races, she was still able to defeat her competitors who all wore proper footwear intended for running.

According to the post, Ballos bagged the top awards in the 400-meter dash, the 800-meter run, and the 1500-meter run in the girls' categories in the inter-school sporting event held in Iloilo, central Philippines.

When pictures of her "Nike" footwear become popular, Filipinos on social media praised her. Many noted that instead of falling into self-pity, she was even able to make light of the situation by drawing the Nike logo on her "running shoes". Some of the commenters of Valenzuela's post expressed how the girl deserved to be recognized by Nike and that the brand should actually give her a new pair of real Nike shoes. Others started getting in touch with the American sports brand, as well as local basketball specialty store Titan 22.

It did not take long for Titan co-founder and Alaska Aces head coach Jeffrey Cariaso to take notice of Ballos' outstanding achievement. Cariaso immediately made an effort to get in touch with the young track runner. The seven-time PBA champion has since talked to the student as well as her coaches in an apparent bid to help her out.

24. Why did Ballos wear bandages around her feet to compete?

A. She couldn't afford to buy shoes.          B. She wished to be noticed by Nike.

C. She wanted to draw public's attention.      D. She thought it fashionable and unique.

25. What's people's attitude to Ballos' story?

A. Surprised.      B. Confused.      C. Favorable.      D. Doubtful.

26. What can we infer from the last paragraph?

A. Ballos will be recognized by Nike.          B. Ballos will be probably helped by Cariaso.

C. Ballos is bound to win more champions.      D. Ballos will become a great basketball player.

27. Which of the following can best describe Ballos?

A. Shy and lucky.             B. Kind and brave.

C. Clever and outstanding.      D. Gifted and optimistic.

C

The race skywards began in America. In the late 1800s, industrialization had driven urban populations and land prices up, making tall buildings increasingly cost-effective, according to Carol Willis, director of the Skyscraper Museum in New York. "The very first tall buildings were office buildings that concentrated a work force, piled one on top of the other in order to make business very efficient," she says.

Like all major changes in architecture, the trend was underpinned by engineering. The development of steel frames, which could be used instead of load-bearing stones, made it easier and cheaper to build tall. The coming of the elevator, meanwhile, made living on higher floors far more convenient.

Though similar in shape, today's skyscrapers(摩天大楼)look little like those built in the first half of the 20th century. This is mostly thanks to architecture's next major technological shift: the curtain wall.

Postwar developments in manufacturing meant that huge panes of glass could be produced quickly and uniformly, and glass windows soon became the front of choice for high-rises. As well as allowing for greater floor space and more natural light, glass exteriors(外部)help buildings resist greater wind loads.

There are now 191 completed skyscrapers that are at least 300 meters tall. But that doesn't mean our cities will grow taller indefinitely. While each additional story adds sellable floor space, construction costs also rise. All buildings reach a point where adding an extra floor will cost more money than it brings.

"Every city wants to have this landmark that gives that sense of distinct culture," but it also needs places for people to live and work in urban settings "without the city sprawling(无序扩张)," explains Hong Kong architect Simon Chan.

The next big challenge facing architects goes beyond height: At a time when buildings and their construction account for more than a third of the world's energy consumption and contribute to about 40 0 o of greenhouse gas emissions(排放), there are new costs to consider.

Whether it's employing more energy-efficient materials, encouraging natural air or using buildings themselves to generate solar or wind energy, reducing carbon emissions is the new frontier for many skyscraper architects.

28. What does the underlined word "underpinned" in paragraph 2 probably mean?

A. Created.      B. Prepared.      C. Suggested.      D. Supported.

29. What made living on higher floors much more convenient?

A. The development of steel frames.      B. Load-bearing stones.

C. The use of the elevator.              D. The curtain wall.

30. What can we know from paragraph 5?

A. Our cities will grow taller definitely.

B. All skyscrapers are at least 300 meters tall.

C. Construction cost rises as the stories increase.

D. The profit for builders will be greater as the building becomes higher.

31. What's the next big challenge facing architects?

A. How to build the greenest building.          B. How to build the strongest building.

C. How to build the tallest building in the world.  D. How to build the most comfortable building.

D

Children's average daily time spent watching television or using mobile device increased from 53 minutes at age 12 months to more than 150 minutes at 3 years, according to an analysis by researchers at the National Institutes of Health(NIH). By age 8.children were more likely to log the highest amount of screen time if they had been in home-based childcare or were born to first-time mothers.

"Our results indicate that screen habits begin early," said Edwina Yeung, an investigator in National Institute of Child Health and Human Development(NICHD). "This finding suggests that interventions(干涉)to reduce screen time could have a better chance of success if introduced early."

In the research, mothers of 4,000 children responded to questions on their kids' media habits when they were 12.18, 24, 30, and 36 months of age.

The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends avoiding digital media exposure for children under 18 months of age, introducing children 18 to 24 months of age to screen media slowly, and limiting screen time to an hour a day for children from 2 to 5 years of age. In the current study, researchers found that 87% of the children had screen time exceeding(超过)these recommendations. However, while screen time increased throughout toddlerhood, by age 7 and 8, screen time fell to under 1.5 hours per day. The researchers believe this decrease relates to time consumed by school-related activities.

The study authors classified the children into two groups based on how much their average daily screen time increased from age 1 to age 3. The first group, 73%of the total, had the lowest increase, from an average of nearly 51 minutes a day to nearly an hour and 47 minutes a day. The second group, 27% of the total, had the highest increase, from nearly 37 minutes of screen time a day to about 4 hours a day. Higher levels of parental education were associated with lower odds of inclusion in the second group.

32. Who use mobile device longest according to the NIH's analysis?

A. 10-year-old born to first-time mothers.

B. 3-year-old children in low income families.

C. 8-year-old children in home-based childcare.

D. 1-year-old children with parents poorly educated.

33. What does the research suggest according to Edwina?

A. Parents should stop their children using media.

B. Parents should limit the use of digital media themselves.

C. Parents should reduce their children's screen time earlier.

D. Parents should avoid their children using digital media at infancy(婴儿期).

34. Why does children's screen time fall when they age 7 and 8?

A. They are studying at school.       B. They can control themselves.

C. They are tired of using them.      D. They are forbidden to use them.

35. Which of the following may be the best title?

A. Keep Away from Media             B. Screen Habits Begin Early

C. Urgency of Parental Education        D. Harm of Home-based Childcare

第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

How to Support a Friend Struggling with Their Mental Health?

Maybe you've noticed a friend is opening up to you for the first time about their anxiety.   36   . Here is what you can do when supporting someone who's struggling with their mental health.

   37  

Instead of making assumptions about what would be helpful to your loved one, ask them directly, "How can I support you?" Remember what you may need when you're struggling may not be what someone else needs when having a hard time.

Offer to help with everyday tasks

Many people struggling with their mental health may find it difficult to make basic decisions. Instead of using a common phrase "I'm here if you need me", try to be specific about what you're offering.   38   .

Celebrate their wins, including the small ones

When a person is struggling with their mental health, every day can be full of challenges.   39   . This can help affirm their feelings of agency. This could look like thanking them for being so honest or congratulating them for going to work.

Read up on what they're struggling with

   40   . Take the time to educate yourself on what they're going through. For example, learning more about depression, so you can understand their lived experience and be aware of risky behaviors to look out for.

A. Ask what they need from you

B. Do check in with them regularly

C. So cheer on their accomplishments

D. You can learn about mental illness

E. It's challenging to know what to say or do

F. Not all mental health challenges look the same

G. Visiting them, look round and see what you can do-like weeding

第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)

第一节 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A fifth grader at Shreve Elementary in Ohio created a Kindness Closet to help students in need.

Anderson "Andi" Musser said a friend told her that she   41   she had some girls' clothing to wear to school. "I went to my   42   and got the clothes and shoes that don't   43   me," Andi told The Daily Record. "I gave them to her at school the next day. And she was really happy."

After   44   clothes to her friend, Andi couldn't help thinking about how great it felt to help someone in need.

"She realized what a difference that   45   for her friend," said Jessica Musser, Andi's mother. "That was so 46 to do. She asked, 'Can we do this for more people?' She took the initiative(倡议)at that   47   .

So, Andi   48   her principal with her idea to   49   a Kindness Closet, a place where   50   students can visit during the school day to "shop" for a new coat or   51   worn garments.

"She came to me, and having knowing what she thought, I said, 'Great, let's do it,'" Principal Adam Stein said.

   52   , Andi doesn't have enough clothes. She came up with an idea and asked local stores for   53   .

"It's great for Andi to see her vision   54   ," Principal Stein said. "It's part of our culture here at Shreve and Triway. It's what every principal and parent would want for their kids to do-to put   55   first."

41. A. suggested      B. guaranteed      C. wished      D. insisted

42. A. closet      B. desk      C. chair      D. counter

43. A. attract      B. fit      C. match      D. follow

44. A. putting out      B. giving off      C. putting away      D. giving away

45. A. made      B. took      C. intended      D. came

46. A. kind      B. considerate      C. easy      D. traditional

47. A. case      B. age      C. stage      D. point

48. A. called      B. approached      C. approved      D. convinced

49. A. create      B. donate      C. spread      D. design

50. A. remote      B. needy      C. popular      D. brilliant

51. A. temporarily      B. apparently      C. slightly      D. previously

52. A. Otherwise      B. Thus      C. Therefore      D. However

53. A. appreciation      B. donations      C. funds      D. advice

54. A. broke up      B. work on      C. end up      D. come true

55. A. anyone      B. another      C. everyone      D. others

第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)

阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。

Climate change makes wildfires, hurricanes and heat waves more frequent   56   stronger than before. The bad effects are in the headlines   57   (regular). The warming climate also changes lives   58   subtler(不易察觉的)ways.

In Tampa, Fla. , Sara Brogan says summers are getting   59   (hot).Going to the beach to cool off is a decades-long tradition for her family. They   60   (go)to the beach once this summer. There was a red tide. These algae(水藻)blooms are increasing, likely because of human   61   (pollute) and warming temperatures. They produce toxins(毒素)that kill sea life. That is   62   Brogan is staying away from the beach. A lot of times it's-before you even get there, you can feel the smell of dead fish is very strong.

Wildfire smoke obviously is not good for people and the animal. Heather Duchow and her husband celebrated   63   (they) 20th anniversary in Montana's Glacier National Park. When they got there, it was very smoky. She felt disappointed: the smoke made it difficult   64   (see) the awe-inspiring views she remembered. For future anniversaries, they may go sooner in the summer,   65   (hope)to avoid the worst of fire season. It's strongly recommended that some measures should be taken to control the warming climate.

第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)

第一节(满分15分)

假定你是李华，你的英国好友Tom在学校羽毛球比赛中获得第一名，请你给他写封祝贺信，要点如下：

1.表示祝贺；

2.肯定他的付出；

3.希望学习他的技术。

注意：

1.写作词数应为80左右；

2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；

3.开头及结尾已为你写好，不计入总词数；

4.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

Dear Tom,

Best wishes.

Yours,

Li Hua

第二节(满分25分)

阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。

My granddaughter Elizabeth lives in Washington. When she was 12-year-old, she spent the summer visiting her father near Atlanta, Georgia. Elizabeth's school was to start in about three weeks, so it was decided that she could stop and visit Texas with us before returning to Washington just in time to start school.

Our visit would be rather short, and we would enjoy every moment that we could to share with her.

I couldn't imagine what the travel agent in Georgia was thinking when it scheduled 12-year-old Lizzy's flights. First, she was to fly from Atlanta to Houston William Hobby Airport, arriving about 9:00 p. m. Then she was to depart for San Antonio about 11:00 p. m. from Houston's George H.W. Bush Inter-Continental Airport. However, Bush is 25 miles across town from Houston Hobby Airport, and there was no ground transportation available between the two.

The lady who sat next to Liz on the plane learned of the situation. Sensing Liz's worry, she gave her a phone card and $ 10. 00. When Elizabeth called us and explained her situation, we advised her to contact a police officer there at the terminal(航空终点站).

She did. The police officer put her in touch with Ms Joy Fears, a Continental gate agent. Initially, Ms Fears was going to put Elizabeth in a taxi to make the cross-town trip. Liz had $20. 00 that her dad had given her upon leaving Atlanta Hartsfield Airport, plus the $ 10.00 that her seat-mate had given her-enough for the taxi fare to Bush Airport. However, considering Liz's age and the late hour, Ms Fears decided to show her kindness by taking an enjoyable "do it yourself" approach.

First Ms Fears got a meal voucher(代金券)and got Lizzy fed. Then she put both Liz's luggage and our granddaughter in her private vehicle. She went so far as to personally deliver Liz to the Continental gate at Bush, and saw to it that she was properly checked in and on her way for the 55-minute flight from Houston to San Antonio.

注意：

1.续写词数应为150左右；

2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

We feel very grateful to Liz's seat-mate and the Houston police officer.

There are many helpful folks who don't get recognition for their kindness.