浙江省嘉兴市2020-2021学年七年级下学期末考试英语试题（word版 含答案）

嘉兴市七年级（下）学科期末检测

英语  试题卷 （2021.06）

二、交际配对（本题有5小题，每小题1分，共计5分。错选、多选一律不给分）

请从A~E中选择适合的答句，与第16~20小题进行配对。每句限用一次。

三、完形填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共计10分。错选、多选一律不给分）

阅读下面短文，掌握大意，然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

The kids in class were afraid of Nick. He was tall and strong, and sometimes he was really 21._____He pushed kids out of line and stood in front. He put out his foot and tripped(绊倒) kids up. Then he said, "22._____ where you're walking! "

One day,a new kid Jake came to 23._____.When Nick tried to push him out of line, he did not move. Nick was unhappy:kids never said 24._____ to him.

At lunchtime,the boys went to play football.

"Hey, new kid! "Nick said 25._____, "You're too small. We don't need you."

Jake just smiled. "You will. "he said.

Jake kicked the ball hard. It went 26 ._____Nick like a rocket(火箭). "Stop this!"he shouted.

Nick tried,but the ball was too fast. He didn't stop 27._____ and fell over.The kids all laughed(大笑) but Jake didn't. He went over to Nick.

"Take it easy! I'm good at it because my dad taught me how to28.._____" he said.

"You're lucky, " Nick 29._____ his head. "But I haven't got a dad. "

"Don't worry. I'll show you then." said Jake.

After that, Jake taught Nick all he knew about football. They became 30._____ And.no one was afraid of Nick any more.

21. A.bad B.slow C.noisy D.bored

22. A. Wai B. Look C. Point D. Think

23. A.town B.camp C.class D.forest

24. A.no B.sorry C.hello D.thanks

25. A.sadly B.kindly C.coldly D.politely

26. A.for B.after C.around D.towards

27. A.it B.him C.her D.them

28. A.study B.cook C.share D.play

29. A.kissed B.turned C.cleaned D.knocked

30. A.guides B.friends C.monitors D.classmates

四、阅读理解（本题有10小题，每小题2分；共计20分。错选、多选一律不给分）

阅读下面四篇材料，然后从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。

A

31. There will be________ films during the 8th Children's Film Festival.

A. five                              B. six                              C. seven                              D. eight

32. Kitty is interested in the music and songs of films. She can go to watch ________.

A. My world             B. The Chestnut Tree             C. Rainy days            D. Bring it on

33. The poster is mainly to________.

A. tell us to try different films

B. ask us to join in the film festival

C. show people's love for children's films

D. share with us some information about a high school

B

In some parts of the word, when dark clouds fill the sky, a great danger sometimes appears(出现). This danger is a quickly tuning tower of air called a tornado, and it is one of the most dangerous things in nature.

Tornadoes happen mostly in the US, and they usually form(形成) in the summer when warm, wet air and cold, dry air meet. They appear at the bottom of large, dark clouds. The wind under the cloud begins to go around and around. It gets faster and faster and can become very strong and dangerous. When the wind touches the ground, it is called a tornado. The turning tornado moves along the ground and can break down trees and buildings in its way.

Most tornadoes are small and only stay on the ground for a few minutes. However, even a small tornado can do a lot of damage(毁坏). Sometimes, tornadoes are very, very big and can last much longer. The worst tornado ever traveled 352 km and was on the ground for three and a half hours. Over 600 people died in it.

Tornadoes are so dangerous because they appear suddenly. There is often no time or place to run away from them.

34. What does the wind in a tornado do?

A. It goes up and down.                                            B. It goes round and round.

C. It goes in a straight line.                                        D. It goes, stops and goes, stops again.

35. What is Paragraph 2 mainly about?

A. How the tornado gets its name.                            B. How the tornado forms.

C. How dangerous the tornado is.                            D. How people keep safe in the tornado.

36. Where can you probably read this passage?

A. In a story book.                                                      B. In a music book.

C. In a poem book.                                                     D. In a science book.

C

Last Thursday, the children’s author Beverly Cleary passed away at age 104. Ms. Cleary’s writing changed the world of children’s books with her stories about ordinary（普通的） kids.

Ms. Cleary was born in 1916. As a child, she had difficulties in learning to read. Even after she learned to love reading, she still found many books boring. She wanted to read interesting books about children like herself.

When she grew up, Ms. Cleary worked in a library. One day, a boy asked her, "Where are the books about kids like us?" She found there weren’t many books about ordinary kids. So she started to write them.

Ms. Cleary’s first book, Henry Huggins, came out in 1950. It told the story of an ordinary boy and his dog.  The book, with its funny, lovable characters, was successful.

"Ramona the Pest" is Ms. Cleary’s most popular character. Ramona is always getting into trouble. When she gets in trouble, it’s often funny, but it’s also something most kids meet in their lives. Many people love Ms. Cleary’s books because of this: she remembered what it really felt like to be a kid.

Ms. Cleary worked hard and wrote over 40 books in her life. She is not with us any more, but her characters and stories will be loved for long.

37. What is special about Ms. Cleary's writing?

A. It's very close to animals.                                         B. It's So easy to understand.

C. It has many beautiful words,                                    D. It tells stories about ordinary kids.

38. The underlined word "characters" in Paragraph 4 means _________ in Chinese.

A.符号                      B.品质                      C.角色                      D.特征

39. Which is the right order of Beverly Cleary's life?

 ①Beverly Cleary’s first book came out.       

②Beverly Cleary began to work in a library.

③Beverly Cleary had trouble learning to read.

④Beverly Cleary became popular around the world.

A.③①②④                     B.③②①④                     C.②③①④                     D.②④③①

40. What can we learn about Ms. Cleary from the passage?

A. She was clever and could learn things very fast as a kid.

B. She was kind to help every kid when she worked in a library,

C. She knew children so well that she could think like one of them.

D. She worked hard in her life for the children with learning difficulties.

五、词汇运用（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分。写错答案一律不给分。首字母大小写错误扣0.5分）

A. 用方框中所给的词的适当形式填空，每词仅用一次。

41. The sofa is so heavy, I can’t move it by _______.

42. These phones come in all shapes and __________.

43. The museum is ______ every day in the summer months.

44. It rained heavily during the ______ day of  our stay in Shanghai.

45. Hans ______ his son a mountain bike as a birthday gift last week.

B.根据短文内容和所给中文提示，在空白处写出单词的正确形式，每空一词。

We know music is very important. Do you 46. ________(注意) music playing at any of those places when you go 47. __________(在某处)？ Today most stores, stations, restaurants and 48. _______(其他的) places play music. You might even hear in an 49. ________(办公室)  or on a farm.

Some scientists 50. ________(相信)  that music changes the way people do things. They think that the sound of 51. ________(西方的) music makes people feel richer. When a restaurant plays classical music, people spend more money on food and drinks. When the restaurant plays 52. ________(现代的) music, people spend less money. 53. _________(没有) music, people spend even less.

The scientists think that the loud, fast music makes people eat faster as well. Some restaurants play fast music during their54.  ______(工作) hours. This makes people eat fast and 55. ______(离开) more quickly. Restaurants can make more money in this way.

六、语法填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共计10分。写错答案一律不给分。首字母大小写错误扣0.5分）

阅读下面的短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中的所给单词的正确形式。

One day, an ant went to a river to drink and fell into it. He thought that he might die 56. _______he couldn’t swim. He didn’t even shout for help but wait 57. _____ the last moment to come.

58. _______(lucky), a bird saw the ant in the river. The kind bird 59. _______(carry) a leaf and asked the ant

to climb onto it. Then the bird pulled 60. ____ leaf out of the river. Finally, the ant went back to land.

After a few 61. ______(day), a man came to the forest. He saw the beautiful high up 62. _____  a tree and got ready to shoot an arrow(射箭) at 63. ______(she). The ant saw this and decided 64. ________(help) the bird. Before the man could let his arrow go, the ant bit(咬) the 65. ______(man) foot. The man shouted and jumped off the ground. The bird heard the noise and flew to a safe place.

七、任务型阅读（本题有5小题，每小题1分，共计5分。写错答案一律不给分。首字母大小写错误扣0.5分）

左栏是读书俱乐部主席Luy写给 Tommy的欢迎信，请仔细阅读其内容，完成右栏Tommy给Lucy的回信。

八、书面表达（本题有1小题，共计15分）

假设你是李华，下学期Mr. Brown将成为你们班的外教老师，你想申请担任英语课代表。请根据下表所给提示，给 Mr Brown写封自荐信，简单介绍一下你自己以及你的势。

注意：（1）短文必须包括表格中的所有内容，可适当发挥。

（2）文中不得出现与你身份相关的信息。

（3）词数：80词左右。短文首句已给出。

Dear Mr. Brown,

I’m so glad that you’ll be our English teacher next term._________________________________________ _________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________

_________________________________________________________________________________________

__________________________________________________________________________________________

                                                                                                                                                          Yours,

LiHua

嘉兴市七年级（下）学科期末检测

英语  参考答案（2021.06）

二、交际配对（本题有5小题，每小题1分，共计5分。错选、多选一律不给分）

16-20CADBE

三、完形填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共计10分。错选、多选一律不给分）

21-25AACAC          26-30DADBB

四、阅读理解（本题有10小题，每小题2分；共计20分。错选、多选一律不给分）

31-33CAB          34-36BBD          37-40DCBC

五、词汇运用（本题有15小题，每小题1分，共计15分。写错答案一律不给分。首字母大小写错误扣0.5分）

41．myself       42．sizes       43．open       44．second       45．bought

46．notice      47．somewhere      48．other      49．office      50．believe

51．western     52． modern      53．Without      54．working     55． leave

六、语法填空（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共计10分。写错答案一律不给分。首字母大小写错误扣0.5分）

56．because      57．for     58． Luckily      59．carried      60．The

61．days      62．in      63．her       64．to help      65．man’s

七、任务型阅读（本题有5小题，每小题1分；共计5分。写错答案一律不给分。首字母大小写错误扣0.5分）

66．member      67．fun/a good time... （答案合理，语法正确，即可给分）

68．books/stories      69．six/6      70．star/STAR（答案合理，语法正确，即可给分）

八、书面表达（本题有1小题，共计15分）

Dear Mr. Brown,

I’m so glad that you'll be our English teacher next term. I am Li Hua, a boy in Class 4, Grade 7. I’d like to be the English monitor. I began to learn English in 2015, and I am very interested in it.I like reading English stories and often tell the stories to my friends.

I’m friendly and kind enough to help others as well. And I think I’ll try my best to be a good helper of yours.

Please choose me as your English monitor!

Yours,

Li Hua